SBI CLERK INTERVIEW RESULT 2010

Recruitment of Clerical Staff in SBI (Advertisement No CRPD/CR/2009-10/04) WRITTEN TEST HELD ON 08TH , 15TH & 22ND NOVEMBER 2009

State Bank of india Published Clerk Recruitment interview result held in april/may 2010

Check Here To SBI Clerk Interview Result April/May 2010 visit :  

 

 

http://www.sbi.co.in/user.htm?action=sbiClericalStaffResult

SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS Ist & 2nd SHIFT (01-03-2009)

FOR SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS Ist &2nd SHIFT (01-03-2009) CLICK HERE

Marketing and Financial Awareness qUESTIONS

1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name

2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947

3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India

4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India

5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation

6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation

7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these

8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI

9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money

(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these

10.Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques

11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order

12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation

13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same

14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological

15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set

16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.

17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier

18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User

19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer

20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these

SBI CLERKS 6100 POSTS RECRUITMENT

STATE BANK Of INDIA (SBI)
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department (CRPD) Corporate Centre, Mumbai

Recruitment of 6100 Clerical Staff in Associte Banks State Bank of India (SBI)

Central Recruitment & Promotion Department, State Bank of India, Corporate Centre, Mumbai invites Online applications from Indian citizens for appointment of 6100 Clerical Cadre posts in State Bank of India Associate Banks (State Bank of Travancore, State Bank of Suarashtra, State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Indore, State Bank of Patiala etc.) upto  01/11/2010  :

• Clerical Cadre : 6100 posts in various states in India (see detailed advt. for Bank-wise, State-wise and Category-wise vacancies) , Pay Scale : Rs.7200-19300/-, Qualification : Minimum 12th Standard (10+2) or equivalent qualification thereof with a minimum of 60% marks (55% for SC/ST/PWD/XS) OR A degree from a recognised university (graduation level) with a minimum of 40% marks (35% for SC/ST/PWD/XS). Matriculate Ex-Servicemen, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or the Air Force, who have put in not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also eligible for the post. Should be able to write and speak English fluently. must be fluent in speaking and writing the Regional Language of the state from which they are selected. Knowledge of other Indian language will be an added qualification., Age : 18-28 years. Age relaxation as per Govt. rules.

Selection Procedure : Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the written test and interview taken together.

Application Fee : Rs. 250/- (for SC/ST/PWD/XS Rs.50/- only) to be deposited in any branch of SBI by a prescribed deposit slip and get receipt upto 30/10/2010. Details of the payment should be entered in online application form.

How to Apply : Apply Online at SBI website upto 01/11/2010.

Important Dates :

1. Last date of Online submission of Application : 01/11/2010
2. Date of Written Examination : 16/01/2011

For more information, please visit the Recruitment page at SBI website http://www.sbi.co.in/

SBI Reasoning Section

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions : (Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)


14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions : (Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions : (Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

SBI CLERK RESULTS TO BE COME OUT BT OCTOBER 2010

 SBI Interview Questions

Why do you want to enter banking?
> You need to talk about Banking – what the interviewer seeks for is a person who is flexible to be along with the given timings, someone who can cope up with writing bits and bobs or a person who can benefit them with more development .Your answer can have following bulleted points.

• Banking is a fast changing environment
• Retail banking is now very competitive – from telephone banking, retailers and etc Banking is thus now largely sales driven.

# You can even talk about IT getting changes and clearing banks offers a wide range of career opportunities for graduates – not just in branch banking but also in financial services, consultancy and corporate banking.
Have you applied to any other areas apart from banking?

Here off course your answer will hold some other finance or sales and marketing careers – insurance or accountancy, altogether these careers should have skills related to banking.
How do you feel about committing yourself to another three years of exams?

The professional examinations that you will almost certainly be required to take as part of your training are not always difficult in themselves, but do require determination and focus- especially as much of your study will be done in the evenings after a hard days work.
You should also be aware of the range of qualifications open to you – many of the large clearing banks offer the opportunity to gain qualifications in marketing, personnel or accountancy – not just banking.
Tell me about an experience in which you had to use tact?
Tact and diplomacy are important qualities in retail banking – the customer is (almost!) always right. You may have to tell an account holder diplomatically why they can’t have a loan for example, without provoking them into moving their account elsewhere.
To answer this type of question, think through everything you have done in the last five years – school, university, sports, clubs, societies, travel, vacation jobs etc. and try to think of situations where you had to demonstrate this and other qualities – do this before your interview.
If you have completed a number of employer application forms, then you should already have done this as this type of question is now common on application forms.
Who are our major competitors and what differences do you notice in our products?
The company will be expecting that you have done your research on the industry generally. You should be familiar with the bank’s products and services – literature on these can be picked up at any branch. Read the banks brochures and annual reports – these may be in the careers information room.
Be aware of current trends in the market and try to find out what each bank is doing in these areas.
What is SLR?
Every bank is required to maintain at the close of business every day, a minimum proportion of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities as liquid assets in the form of cash, gold and un-encumbered approved securities. The ratio of liquid assets to demand and time liabilities is known as Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Present SLR is 24%. (reduced w.e.f. 8/11/208, from earlier 25%) RBI is empowered to increase this ratio up to 40%. An increase in SLR also restrict the bank’s leverage position to pump more money into the economy.
What is SLR ? (For Non Bankers)
SLR stands for Statutory Liquidity Ratio. This term is used by bankers and indicates the minimum percentage of deposits that the bank has to maintain in form of gold, cash or other approved securities. Thus, we can say that it is ratio of cash and some other approved to liabilities (deposits) It regulates the credit growth in India.
What are Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate?
Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. Therefore, we can say that in case, RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate; similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate
What are Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate?
Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. Therefore, we can say that in case, RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate; similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate
Thus, we can conclude that Repo Rate signifies the rate at which liquidity is injected in the banking system by RBI, whereas Reverse repo rate signifies the rate at which the central bank absorbs liquidity from the banks.
What is the difference between Bank Rate and Repo Rate?
Bank Rate vs Repo Rate
Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI allows finance to commercial banks in India. There are difference types of refinance that can be availed by banks and these are linked to Bank Rate. Thus, banks can borrow at this rate only to the extent of their eligibility for refinance.
On the other hand, Repo is a money market instrument, which enables collateralised short term borrowing and lending through sale/purchase operations in debt instruments. Under a repo transaction, a holder of securities sells them to an investor with an agreement to repurchase at a predetermined date and rate. In the case of a repo, the forward clean price of the bonds is set in advance at a level which is different from the spot clean price by adjusting the difference between repo interest and coupon earned on the security. In the money market, this transaction is nothing but collateralised lending as the terms of the transaction are structured to compensate for the funds lent and the cost of the transaction is the repo rate. Thus, a bank can borrow under repo provided he has the extra securities which it can lend temporarily to RBI for borrowing short term funds.
What is relation between Inflation and Bank interest Rates?
Now a days, you might have heard lot of these terms and usage on inflation and the bank interest rates. Bank interest rate depends on many other factors, out of that the major one is inflation. Whenever you see an increase on inflation, there will be an increase of interest rate also
What is a bank?
A bank is a financial institution whose primary activity is to act as a payment agent for customers and to borrow and lend money. It is an institution for receiving, keeping, and lending money

What is the activity of Banks?
Banks act as payment agents by conducting checking or current accounts for customers, paying cheques drawn by customers on the bank, and collecting cheques deposited to customers’ current accounts. Banks also enable customer payments via other payment methods such as telegraphic transfer, EFTPOS, and ATM.
Banks borrow money by accepting funds deposited on current account, accepting term deposits and by issuing debt securities such as banknotes and bonds. Banks lend money by making advances to customers on current account, by making installment loans, and by investing in marketable debt securities and other forms of money lending.
Banks provide almost all payment services, and a bank account is considered indispensable by most businesses, individuals and governments. Non-banks that provide payment services such as remittance companies are not normally considered an adequate substitute for having a bank account.
Banks borrow most funds from households and non-financial businesses, and lend most funds to households and non-financial businesses, but non-bank lenders provide a significant and in many cases adequate substitute for bank loans, and money market funds, cash management trusts and other non-bank financial institutions in many cases provide an adequate substitute to banks for lending savings to.
What is Banking Business?
“Banking Business” means the business of receiving money on current or deposit account, paying and collecting cheques drawn by or paid in by customers, the making of advances to customers, and includes such other business as the Authority may prescribe for the purposes of this Act.
What is Accounting for Bank Accounts?
Bank statements are accounting records produced by banks under the various accounting standards of the world. Under GAAP and IFRS there are two kinds of accounts: debit and credit. Credit accounts are Revenue, Equity and Liabilities. Debit Accounts are Assets and Expenses. This means you credit credit accounts to increase their balances and you debit debit accounts to increase their balances.
This also means you debit your savings account every time you deposit money into it (and the account is normally in deficit) and you credit your credit card account every time you spend money from it (and the account is normally in credit).
However, if you read your bank statement, it will say the opposite- that you have credited your account when you deposit money, and you debit when you withdraw it. If you have cash in your account you have a positive or credit balance and if you are overdrawn it will say you have a negative or a deficit balance.
The reason for this is because the bank, and not you, has produced the bank statement. Your savings might be your assets, but it is the bank’s liability, so your savings account is a liability account which is a credit account and should have a positive credit balance. Your loans are your liabilities but the bank’s assets so they are debit accounts which should have a negative balance.
Below where bank transactions, balances, credits and debits are discussed, they are done so from the viewpoint of the account holder which is traditionally what most people are used to seeing.
What are the commercial roles of the Banks ?
However the commercial role of banks is wider than banking, and includes:

• However the commercial role of banks is wider than banking, and includes:
• issue of banknotes (promissory notes issued by a banker and payable to bearer on demand)
• processing of payments by way of telegraphic transfer, EFTPOS, internet banking or other means
• issuing bank drafts and bank cheques
• accepting money on term deposit
• lending money by way of overdraft, installment loan or otherwise
• providing documentary and standby letters of credit (trade finance), guarantees, performance bonds, securities underwriting commitments and other forms of off balance sheet exposures
• safekeeping of documents and other items in safe deposit boxes
• currency exchange
• sale, distribution or brokerage, with or without advice, of insurance, unit trusts and similar financial products as a ‘financial supermarket’

What are the Economic functions of Banks?
The economic functions of banks include:
1. issue of money, in the form of banknotes and current accounts subject to cheque or payment at the customer’s order. These claims on banks can act as money because they are negotiable and/or repayable on demand, and hence valued at par and effectively transferable by mere delivery in the case of banknotes, or by drawing a cheque, delivering it to the payee to bank or cash.
2. netting and settlement of payments — banks act both as collection agent and paying agents for customers, and participate in inter-bank clearing and settlement systems to collect, present, be presented with, and pay payment instruments. This enables banks to economise on reserves held for settlement of payments, since inward and outward payments offset each other. It also enables payment flows between geographical areas to offset, reducing the cost of settling payments between geographical areas.
3. credit intermediation – banks borrow and lend back-to-back on their own account as middle men
4. credit quality improvement – banks lend money to ordinary commercial and personal borrowers (ordinary credit quality), but are high quality borrowers. The improvement comes from diversification of the bank’s assets and the bank’s own capital which provides a buffer to absorb losses without defaulting on its own obligations. However, since banknotes and deposits are generally unsecured, if the bank gets into difficulty and pledges assets as security to try to get the funding it needs to continue to operate, this puts the note holders and depositors in an economically subordinated position.
5. maturity transformation — banks borrow more on demand debt and short term debt, but provide more long term loans. In other words; banks borrow short and lend long. Bank can do this because they can aggregate issues (e.g. accepting deposits and issuing banknotes) and redemptions (e.g. withdrawals and redemptions of banknotes), maintain reserves of cash, invest in marketable securities that can be readily converted to cash if needed, and raise replacement funding as needed from various sources (e.g. wholesale cash markets and securities markets) because they have a high and more well known credit quality than most other borrowers.

What are the different channels of Banking you use in your daily life ?
Banks offer many different channels to access their banking and other services:

• A branch, banking centre or financial centre is a retail location where a bank or financial institution offers a wide array of face-to-face service to its customers.
• ATM is a computerized telecommunications device that provides a financial institution’s customers a method of financial transactions in a public space without the need for a human clerk or bank teller. Most banks now have more ATMs than branches, and ATMs are providing a wider range of services to a wider range of users. For example in Hong Kong, most ATMs enable anyone to deposit cash to any customer of the bank’s account by feeding in the notes and entering the account number to be credited. Also, most ATMs enable card holders from other banks to get their account balance and withdraw cash, even if the card is issued by a foreign bank.
• Mail is part of the postal system which itself is a system wherein written documents typically enclosed in envelopes, and also small packages containing other matter, are delivered to destinations around the world. This can be used to deposit cheques and to send orders to the bank to pay money to third parties. Banks also normally use mail to deliver periodic account statements to customers.
• Telephone banking is a service provided by a financial institution which allows its customers to perform transactions over the telephone. This normally includes bill payments for bills from major billers (e.g. for electricity).
• Online banking is a term used for performing transactions, payments etc. over the Internet through a bank, credit union or building society’s secure website.

How many type of banks there are ?
Banks’ activities can be divided into retail banking, dealing directly with individuals and small businesses; business banking, providing services to mid-market business; corporate banking, directed at large business entities; private banking, providing wealth management services to high net worth individuals and families; and investment banking, relating to activities on the financial markets. Most banks are profit-making, private enterprises. However, some are owned by government, or are non-profits.
Central banks are normally government owned banks, often charged with quasi-regulatory responsibilities, e.g. supervising commercial banks, or controlling the cash interest rate. They generally provide liquidity to the banking system and act as the lender of last resort in event of a crisis.
Type of Retail Banks

• Commercial bank: the term used for a normal bank to distinguish it from an investment bank. After the Great Depression, the U.S. Congress required that banks only engage in banking activities, whereas investment banks were limited to capital market activities. Since the two no longer have to be under separate ownership, some use the term “commercial bank” to refer to a bank or a division of a bank that mostly deals with deposits and loans from corporations or large businesses.
• Community Banks: locally operated financial institutions that empower employees to make local decisions to serve their customers and the partners
• Community development banks: regulated banks that provide financial services and credit to under-served markets or populations.
• Postal savings banks: savings banks associated with national postal systems.
• Private banks: manage the assets of high net worth individuals.
• Offshore banks: banks located in jurisdictions with low taxation and regulation. Many offshore banks are essentially private banks.
• Savings bank: in Europe, savings banks take their roots in the 19th or sometimes even 18th century. Their original objective was to provide easily accessible savings products to all strata of the population. In some countries, savings banks were created on public initiative, while in others socially committed individuals created foundations to put in place the necessary infrastructure. Nowadays, European savings banks have kept their focus on retail banking: payments, savings products, credits and insurances for individuals or small and medium-sized enterprises. Apart from this retail focus, they also differ from commercial banks by their broadly decentralised distribution network, providing local and regional outreach and by their socially responsible approach to business and society.
• Building societies and Landesbanks: conduct retail banking.
• Ethical banks: banks that prioritize the transparency of all operations and make only what they consider to be socially-responsible investments.
• Islamic banks: Banks that transact according to Islamic principles.

SBI Clerks Recruitment 2009

SBI CLERKS EXAM - GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

BANK EXAM BOOKS

BANK EXAM BOOKS

BANK PO EXAM REFERENCE BOOKS

who are preparing for Bank Pronationary Officer examination can make use of the following information and choose the appropriate books and prepare well for forecoming bank po exams.

List of Bank po books are as follows:

1. Book Name : Bank probationary officers Exam
Author : V.V.K.Subburaj
Price : Rs.200/-
Book- Content : Bank probationary officers Exam Book contains Bank po examJuly 2000 to September 2008 bank PO original question papers included with detailed answers

2.Book Name : Bank probationary officers exam
Author : V.V.K Subburaj
Price : Rs.350/-
Book- Content : Previous year question papers with answers and general knowledge free booklet included

3 .Book Name : Bank PO & Specialist Officer Exam
Author: R.Gupta
Price: Rs.295/-
Book- Content : R.Gupta’s popular Master guide Bank PO and specialist officers recruitment exam conducted by various banks.

4. Book Name : Bank Examiner
Publisher: National Learning Corp
Author: Jack Rudman, National Learning Corporation,
Price :Rs.1518/-

5. Book Name : State Bank Probationary Officers Exam
Author : Dr. A.m. Malhotra & P.s. Bright
Price : Rs.480/-

6. Book Name : Upkar State Bank Probationary Officers Examination (solved Papers)
Author : Upkar
Price : Rs.85/-

7. Book Name : Pearson Guide to Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Examinations
Author : Vandana Thorpe
Price : Rs.450/-

8. Book Name : Oswaal Chapter-Wise Solutions of BANK P.O. (10 Years Solved Papers)
Price : Rs. 319/-

9. Book Name : Rames Bank P.O. Officers Examination Guide
Author : RPH Editorial Board
Price : Rs.236/-

10 . Book Name : Upkars State Bank Probationary Officers Examination
Author: T.S.Jain
Price :Rs.351/-

11. Book Name : Ramesh Bank P. O. Prev. Solved Papers
Author : RPH Editorial Board
Price : Rs.120/-

12. Book Name : Upkars Quantitative Aptitude Test for Bank P.O. Cadre
Author : Dr. M. B. Lal
Price : Rs.172/-

13. Book Name : Bank Probationary Officer Exam Preparation Question Bank CD
Price : Rs.500/-

14. Book Name : Upkar – Banks Probationary Officer Exam
Author: T. S. Jain
Price : Rs. 270

15. Book Name : Bank Probationary Officer’s Guide
Author: Ravi Chopra
Price : Rs. 176/-


BANK CLERK EXAM BOOKS

The list of Bank clerk examination book details are provided beneath.Candidates preparing for clerk exam in any Bank can read the following Bank clerk exam book s and prepare well for bank clerk examination.

1. Book Name : Banks clerk Examination:

Author :V.V.K.Subburaj

Price : Rs.220/-

Description: free booklet contaning question and answers for practice tests.

2. Book Name : SBI Bank Clerk’s Exam:

Author : V.V.K. Subburaj

Price : Rs. 200/-

Description : Previous year original question and answers included.

3. Book Name : Bank Clerk’s Recrutiment exam for Winners(original question papers and winners)

Author : V.V.K. Subburaj

Price : Rs. 40/-

Description: Fully solved bank clerk’s original question papers in all subjects like test

of reasoning ,English Language, quantitative aptitude

Most Recommended Bank clerk exam books:
These are some of the best books for Bank Clerical cadre examinations.

* Ramesh Bank Clerical Practice Work Book – by RPH Editorial Board (Rs. 190)
* Ramesh Bank Clerical Exam Solved Papers – by RPH Editorial Board (Rs. 110)
* Ramesh Bank Clerical Test Guide (Big) – by Anjani A Gupta (Rs. 195)
* Ramesh Bank Clerks Exam Guide (Small) – by Saurabh Sharma, Karan Dev (Rs. 140)
* Upkars Banks Recruitment Tests – by Khanna & Verma (Rs. 130)
* Upkars Bank Competitions – by T. S. Jain (Rs. 205)
* Upkars New Banks Recruitment Tests – by Dr. M. B. Lal & Bhatnagar (Rs. 140)
* Upkars Quicker Numerical Test for Bank Clerical Cadre – by Dr. M. B. Lal & Jain (Rs. 145)

Most Recommended Bank clerical Books :

4 . Book Name : Magical Book on Quicker Maths
Author – M.Tyra
Publisher – BSC Publishing Co. Pvt. Ltd., C-37 Ganesh Nagar, Pandav Nagar Complex, Delhi – 110092
Phone No. – 2210510, 2040669
website – www.bsccareer.com

5. State Bank of India bank exams books:

Book Name : Upkar SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam.

Author :T.S.Jain

6. Sbi Clerical Cadre Guide Book: Sbi Clerical Cadre Guide
Author: New Light Publisher

Price: Rs.245/-

7. Book Name : Upkar – Bank’s Clerical Recruitment Tests

Author: Khana and Verma

Price : Rs.130/-

8. Book Name : Bank Clerical Test Guide(Big)

Author : Anjani A Gupta

Price :Rs.230 /-

9. Book Name : Bank Clerks Exam Guide(Small)

Author : Karan Dev

Price : Rs.140/-

RBI/SIDBI EXAM BOOKS

BANK GRADE- B OFFICER BOOK DETAILS:

BOOK NAME: Upkars Reserve Bank of India Grade-B Examination

Upkars Reserve Bank of India Grade-B Examination- Book is available in all book shops, interested candidates can buy the book from store and prepare well for exams. To buy books online click this link Upkars (RBI)Reserve Bank of India Grade-B Books.

Book Name: Ramesh RBI Grade B Officers Exam Guide by RPH Editorial Board

Ramesh RBI Grade B Officers Exam Guide by RPH Editorial Board –Book is available online, to buy the book online view the following link Ramesh RBI Grade B Officers Exam Guide and get more details about the book it will be really good to prepare for exams.


BOOK NAME:Ramesh IDBI/SIDBI Asst. Manager Guide

Ramesh IDBI/SIDBI Asst. Manager Guide will be more useful for candidates preparing for the Asst Manager post in bank . To know more about this book click the following link Ramesh IDBI/SIDBI Asst. Manager Guide

Do visit for more information regarding bank books, bank question paper, bank jobs, bank results, bank exams in India.

Bank Grade B Officer Books | Reserve Bank Grade B Officer Books | RBI Grade B officer Book | IDBI /SIDBI Bank Books

SBI CLERKS EXAM 22-11-2009 (1st Shift)

State Bank of India
Clerk (First Shift) Exam., 2009
(Held on 22-11-2009)
General Awareness

1. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following countries is adjudged as the ‘Most Favoured Nation’ for back office support to the world’s major multinationals ?
(A) China
(B) South Africa
(C) Singapore
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the ‘World’s Green, Index’, compiled by various global agencies jointly ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Britain
(E) Japan
Ans : (B)

3. The President of India in her first speech in the joint session of the current parliament had said that every family living below poverty line would get 25 kg. of wheat/rice per month at @ Rs. 3 per kg. To achieve this she recommended enacting of which of the following Acts ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Agricultural Commodities and Warehousing Act
(C) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Act
(D) National Minimum Wages Act
(E) National Food Security Act
Ans : (E)


4. As per the news paper reports, India is in the process of purchasing some ‘mid-air refuellers’ from a global supplier. These ‘mid-air refuellers’ are being procured for which of the following establishments ?
(A) Indian Airlines and Air India
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(D) Pawan Hans
(E) Ministry of Surface Transport
Ans : (B)

5. The Govt. of India announced a special relief package of several thousand crores of rupees for which of the following sections of our society ?
(A) Senior Citizens
(B) Women Employees of Central Government
(C) Farmers
(D) Workers in unorganized sectors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

6. The present Lok Sabha is formed after the ……….
(A) 13th general elections
(B) 14th general elections
(C) 15th general elections
(D) 16th genral elections
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the number of India’s wireless subscribers has become about 400 million. Which of the following agencies, as a regulator, has published this data ?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(B) MTNL
(C) Department of Telecommunication Services (DTS)
(D) Association of Cellular Service Providers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Late Y. S. Rajasekhar Reddy who passed away a few months back was holding which of the following positions ?
(A) Chief Minister of a state
(B) Union Cabinet Minister
(C) Governor of a State
(D) Chief Secretary of a State
(E) India’s permanent Representative in the UNO
Ans : (A)

9. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world ?
(A) AIDS
(B) Swine Flue
(C) Polio
(D) T.B.
(E) Chikungunya
Ans : (B)

10. Who amongst the following is NOT a member of the present Union Cabinet ?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kamalnath
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Ans : (C)

11. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) U N Economic and Social Council
(D) U N Food and Agricultural Organisation
(E) International Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)

12. The war between Russia and which of the following nations in 2008 is known as ‘August war’ ?
(A) Georgia
(B) Iran
(C) Slovakia
(D) Afghanistan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following is Bank Rate at present ?
(A) 3%
(B) 4%
(C) 5%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations ?
(A) SAARC
(B) WTO
(C) BRIC
(D) UNO
(E) OPEC
Ans : (E)

15. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(C) Know India Programme
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

16. Almost all Banks in India are running special schemes for providing banking services to rural poor. This concept is popularly known as ……….
(A) Faster Growth
(B) Trade Finance
(C) SME Finance
(D) Investment Banking
(E) Financial Inclusion
Ans : (E)

17. Special emphasis by the Govt. of India on which of the following will certainly improve the performance of the agriculture sector in country within a short span of time ?
(A) Focussed Public Distribution System
(B) Sanitation & Health Services
(C) Rural Employment
(D) Better irrigation facilities
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. The Reserve Bank of India is in the process of selling its stake in which of the following agencies /organizations ?
(A) NABARD
(B) Food Corporation of India
(C) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(D) Bombay Stock Exchange
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. The market value of all final goods and services produced and/made with the geographical boundaries of a country in a year is known as ……….
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(B) Gross National Saving
(C) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(D) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Organisation of workers in which of the following groups has proved a very effective way of providing micro finance by banks to the rural people and poor in India ?
(A) Self Help Groups
(B) Vriksha Mitras
(C) Shiksha Sevaks
(D) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)
(E) Link Workers
Ans : (A)

21. Which of the following things is done in the Union Budget 2009-10, to help ‘Tax payers’ in India ?
(A) Mobile phones, branded jewellery and leather products will cost less as the Custom duty is reduced on them
(B) Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is increased by 30%
(C) Farm Loan Waiver scheme is extended to 31st December 2009
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax abolished
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. The Government of India has increased its allocation of funds to which of the following schemes by 144% in current union budget, as it has proved to be a very popular scheme amongst the rural job seekers ?
(A) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(B) National Food for Work Programme
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following Acts is enacted to help the Union Govt. to manage its budgeted finances and fiscal deficit in a very disciplined manner ?
(A) The Competition Act
(B) The Banking Regulation Act
(C) The Negotiable Instruments Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following is NOT a banking related term ?
(A) Discount
(B) Credit
(C) Reynolds Number
(D) Post Dated Cheque
(E) Time Deposit
Ans : (C)

25. Who amongst the following was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2009 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Abhishek Jha
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) M. C. Mary Kom
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar ?
(A) By God’s Decree
(B) Freedom From Fear
(C) Sunny Days
(D) Story of My Life
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Who amongst the following can never be a winner of the Nobel Prize ?
(A) An Author
(B) A Medical Doctor
(C) An Economist
(D) A Physicist
(E) A world famous Musician
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following awards is NOT given by the Government of India ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Padma Vibhushan
(C) Ashok Chakra
(D) Kalinga Prize
(E) All are given by the Government of India
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following operations is conducted after a gap of every ten years ?
(A) Economic survey
(B) Estimates of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
(C) Compilation of Human Development Report
(D) Census of Small Scale Enterprises
(E) General Census
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following schemes is launched to make Indian cities free from slums in days to come ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Bharat Nirman
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. Which of the following is NOT the name of an irrigation system prevalent in India ?
(A) Sprinkler System
(B) Silage System
(C) Drip System
(D) Furrow System
(E) Canal System
Ans : (B)

32. Deep Joshi was given Raman Magsaysay Award in 2009 for his contribution in the field of ……….
(A) literature
(B) sports
(C) cinema
(D) journalism
(E) rural development
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Badminton ?
(A) Double Fault
(B) Punch
(C) Follow on
(D) Tee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Cashew nut is not produced as a major product in which of the following states ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)

35. Late Norman Borlaug who passed away recently, was famous for his contribution to which of the following in India ?
(A) Operation Flood
(B) Operation Black Board
(C) Co-operative Movement in Milk production
(D) Green Revolution
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related with the game of cricket ?
(A) Deodhar Trophy
(B) Irani Trophy
(C) Subroto Cup
(D) Ranji Trophy
(E) ICC Trophy
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following books is written by Namita Gokhale ?
(A) A Himalayan Love Story
(B) Soul Mountain
(C) A New World
(D) The Last Hero
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following taxes is not levied by the Government of India ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Professional Tax
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Dividend Distribution Tax
(E) Capital Gain Tax
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Bomba Gold Cup
(B) Davis Cup
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Vizzy Trophy
(E) Nehru Trophy
Ans : (B)

40. Who amonst the following was a famous author and director ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Vijay Tendulkar
(C) Bidhanchandra Roy
(D) Bismillah Khan
(E) Vilayat Khan
Ans : (B)

SBI CLERKS EXAM 2009

SBI - Clerk  Exam 2009
Reasoning
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth
letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word
? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be
formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using
each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is
called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following
grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the
difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the
new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English
alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many
vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL
be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters
between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very
beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for
‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which
follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be
the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following
will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is
subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the
difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third
highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions,
which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four
combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the
scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination,
which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the
combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the
vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to
be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded
as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not
more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have
different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have
specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a
doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for
company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in
company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons
having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and
his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No
lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer
figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were
continued ?

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions ?
1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ?
(A) 18·275
(B) 21·625
(C) 32·375
(D) 25·45
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?
(A) 36·585
(B) 30·082
(C) 32·085
(D) 35·066
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following number series ?
7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)
18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240
litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained ismultiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)
23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)
24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Ans : (A)


Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge


1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)
31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Ans : (A)
32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) its not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Ans : (D)
37. Planned-cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self-marketing
(B) Core Groups monitering
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

General English

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was
open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.
‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.
After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village
he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’
The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’
he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who
will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.
1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher ?
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Ans : (B)
2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Ans : (E)
3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher.
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey
properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Ans : (C)
10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Ans : (A)
12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.
13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary
funds to study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)
14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and
accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)
16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)
17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word
which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)
19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)
20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)
21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)
22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) I was pleased by their reaction.
(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to
those affected by the earthquake.
(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.
(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.
(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.
(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.
23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)
25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)
26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow.(D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) /want to see it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each
case.
Today, twenty-two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is
…(40)… from the loan.
33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Ans : (E)
34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Ans : (E)
35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Ans : (A)
36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Ans : (D)
37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Ans : (A)
38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Ans : (B)
39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Ans : (B)
40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Ans : (A)

General Awareness

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)
2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)
5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)
6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)
10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)
12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)
14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)
15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)
17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)
18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)
28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)
29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)
32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)
33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)
34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)
36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is
advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)