Showing posts with label RBI. Show all posts
Showing posts with label RBI. Show all posts

Saturday, 9 October 2010

RBI Officers in Grade 'B' (General) – DR


RESERVE BANK OF INDIA
SERVICES BOARD, MUMBAI
Applications (App.) are invited for the post mentioned below in Reserve Bank of India (RBI/Bank) from Indian citizens, citizens of Nepal and subjects of Bhutan, Tibetan refugees (who came over to India before 1st January 1962) and persons of Indian origin who have migrated from Myanmar and Sri Lanka with the intention of permanently settling in India and in whose favour Eligibility Certificates have been issued by Government of India.
Post
Unreserved i.e. General (GEN)
Scheduled Castes (SC)
Scheduled Tribes (ST)
Other Backward Classes (OBC)
TOTAL
Officers in Grade 'B' (General) - (Direct Recruitment -DR)
40
15
05
20
80*
*Out of the 80 vacancies mentioned above, 6 vacancies are reserved for Hearing Impaired (HI) candidates under Persons with Disability (PWD) category, but no vacancy is reserved for Orthopaedically Handicapped (OH) and Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates. However, Orthopaedically Handicapped and Visually Handicapped candidates may also apply for the post but they will not be eligible for any relaxation/concession except for age and application fee. Persons with Disability may belong to any category (GEN/SC/ST/OBC).
Note : (i) Hearing Impaired are those in whom the sense of hearing is non-functional for ordinary purposes of life. They do not hear, understand sounds at all, even with amplified speech. The cases included in this category will be those having hearing loss more than 60 decibels in the better ear (profound impairment) or total loss of hearing in both ears. The degree of disability should not be less than 40 per cent.
(ii) The Persons with Disability (PWD) candidates should possess a latest Certificate to this effect issued by an authorized Government of India/State Government Department/ Hospital.
2 (a) Age (as on 01-10-2010) : Between 21 and 30 years (candidates must have been born not earlier than 02/10/1980 and not later than 01/10/1989). For candidates possessing M.Phil. and Ph.D. qualification, upper age limit will be 31 and 33 years respectively. For candidates having experience as an officer in Commercial Bank/Financial Institution in Public Sector, upper age limit is relaxed to the extent of number of years of such experience subject to a maximum of three years. For such candidates, upper age limit should not exceed 33 years including experience. For experience, probationary period will not be reckoned. Refer item 4 below for relaxation in upper age limit for specified categories.
(b) Educational Qualifications (as on 01-10 -2010): i) A First Class Bachelor's Degree with a minimum of 60% marks or an equivalent grade OR ii) A Second Class Master's Degree with a minimum of 55% marks or an equivalent grade OR iii) A Doctorate Degree with 50% marks in Master's Degree or equivalent grade OR iv) Chartered/Cost Accountant/Company Secretary (ACS) with a Bachelor's Degree OR v) A Post Graduate Diploma in Management / MBA qualification from institutions recognized by Government of India / University Grants Commission, with Graduation / Bachelor's Degree.
NOTE: SC/ST/HI candidates having second class with a minimum of 50% marks or equivalent grade in Bachelor's Degree examination OR having a Post-graduate Degree or equivalent recognized qualification, are eligible to apply.
(c) Scheme of Selection :
Selection will be through Written Examinations (WE) and Interview. 'WE' will be held in two phases as under:
(I) Phase I (Objective Type Test) : This Paper of 3 hours duration for 200 marks will be held on Sunday, the February 6, 2011. The Paper consists tests of i) General Awareness ii) English Language iii) Quantitative Aptitude and iv) Reasoning. Candidates have to secure minimum marks separately for each test as prescribed by the Board. Candidates who secure minimum marks separately for each Test as prescribed will be shortlisted for Phase II of the 'WE' based on the aggregate marks obtained in the Objective Test. The minimum aggregate cut off marks for being shortlisted for Phase II of the WE will be decided by the Board in relation to the number of vacancies. Roll No. of the candidates successful in Phase I of the WE are likely to be published around March/April 2011 in Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar and on the RBI website and a brief notice thereof in leading newspapers.
(II) Phase II (Descriptive Type Test): The Phase II Examination will be conducted in May/ June 2011(tentative) only for those candidates who are successful in Phase I (Objective Type Test). The date and time-table will be intimated to the candidates concerned at the appropriate time. The Examination will consist of three Descriptive Type papers –
(i) Paper I – English (ii) Paper II – Economic and Social Issues and (iii) Paper III – Finance and Management. Each of these papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.
NOTE : Phase I (except the test of English) and Papers II and III of Phase II will be set bilingually in Hindi and English. Phase I is Objective Type and only marking the correct choice is required. However, Papers II and III of Phase II can be answered either wholly in Hindi or English at the candidate's option.
(III) Syllabus (Phase II) :
(i) Paper I – English : Essay, PrĂ©cis writing, Comprehension, Business/Office Correspondence.
(ii) Paper II – Economic and Social Issues: Growth and Development – Measurement of growth : National Income and per capita income – Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India – Sustainable Development and Environmental issues. Economic Reforms in India – Industrial and Labour Policy – Monetary and Fiscal Policy – Privatisation – Role of Economic Planning. Globalization – Opening up of the Indian Economy – Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy – International Economic Institutions – IMF and World Bank – WTO – Regional Economic Co-operation. Social Structure in India – Multiculturalism – Demographic Trends – Urbanisation and Migration – Gender Issues – Social Justice : Positive Discrimination in favour of the under privileged – Social Movements – Indian Political System – Human Development – Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.
(iii) Paper III – Finance and Management :
Finance : The Union Budget – Direct and Indirect taxes; Non-tax sources of revenue; Outlays; New Measures; Financial Sector Reforms; Capital Market, Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market; Stock Exchanges and their Regulation; Capital Market Intermediaries and their Regulation; Role of SEBI; Functions of the Money Market; Growth and Operation of the Money Market; The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA; Exchange Rate Management; Exchange Risk Management; Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development; Regulation of Banks and Financial Institutions;
Disinvestment in Public Sector Units.
Management : Management: its nature and scope; The Management Processes; Planning Organisation, Staffing, Directing and Controlling; The Role of a Manager in an Organisation. Leadership: The Tasks of a Leader; Leadership Styles; Leadership Theories; A successful Leader versus an effective Leader. Human Resource Development: Concept of HRD; Goals of HRD; Performance Appraisal – Potential appraisal and development – Feedback and Performance Counseling – Career Planning – Training and Development – Rewards – Employee Welfare. Motivation, Morale and Incentives: Theories of Motivation; How Managers Motivate; Concept of Morale; Factors determining morale; Role of Incentives in Building up Morale. Communication: Steps in the Communication Process; Communication Channels; Oral versus Written Communication; Verbal versus non-verbal Communication; upward, downward and lateral communication; Barriers to Communication, Role of Information Technology. Corporate Governance: Factors affecting Corporate Governance; Mechanisms of Corporate Governance.
NOTE : The above syllabus is only indicative and not exhaustive. Keeping in view that candidates from different faculty backgrounds apply for the post, the questions in Papers II and III will be basic in nature. Candidates will be short-listed for interview based on the aggregate marks obtained only in Phase II – Papers I, II and III. The minimum cut off marks for being short-listed for interview will be decided by the Board in relation to the number of vacancies. Candidates may answer the Interview either in Hindi or English at their option. Final selection will be based on the performance of the candidate in Phase II of the 'WE' and Interview.
(d) Number of attempts : Candidates belonging to Unreserved Category, who had already appeared four times for 'WE' for this post in the past, are not eligible to apply. No such restriction to candidates belonging to SC\ST\OBC\PWD, if the posts are reserved for them.
(e) Pre-examination training for SC/ST/PWD candidates: The Bank arranges pre-examination training for Phases I and II of the examination for SC/ST/PWD candidates, free of cost, at the centres where the Bank has its offices. Candidates who desire to avail of the training may apply separately to the Regional Director/General Manager, Reserve Bank of India at any one of the centres marked (**) below, whichever is convenient to them in the format furnished below on or before November 15, 2010. Candidates should not send their application for training to the Reserve Bank of India Services Board's Office (Board) as the Board will not entertain such applications.
FORM OF APPLICATION FOR TRAINING
The Regional Director/General Manager Reserve Bank of India **--------------------------- Place :
Date :

Dear Sir
Pre-examination training – Officers in Gr.'B' (General) - (DR)
I have applied to the RBISB for the post of Officer in Gr.'B' (General) (DR). Please register my name for training in English/Hindi# medium. I enclose an attested copy of the Caste/Physically Handicapped Certificate. I note that I will have to make my own arrangements for stay and meet all my expenses. I also note that undergoing the training will not confer on me any right to be called for the Examination or for recruitment in the Bank's service.
Yours faithfully
(Signature)
Name and Address
Encl.: Attested copy of the Caste/Physically Handicapped Certificate.
# Delete inapplicable.
(Note : Training in Hindi will be held only if sufficient no. of candidates are registered)
**Addresses of the Centre: One Centre to be chosen from the list given below:
P.B. No.1, Ahmedabad-380014; P.B. No.5467, Bangalore-560001; P.B. No.32, Bhopal-462011; P.B. No.16, Bhubaneswar-751001; Sector 17, Chandigarh-160017; P.B. No.40, Chennai-600001; P.B. No.120, Guwahati-781001 (for Agartala/ Aizawl /Guwahati/ Imphal/ Itanagar/ Kohima/Shillong centres); P.B. No.1, Hyderabad-500004; P.B. No.12, Jaipur-302004; P.B. No.1, Jammu-180012; M.G. Road, Kanpur-208001; P.B. No.3065, Kochi-682018; P.B. No.552, Kolkata-700001 (for Kolkata/Port Blair centres); P.B. No.24, Lucknow-226001; P.B. No.4528, Plot No.3, Sector 10, H.H. Nirmaladevi Marg, CBD Belapur, Navi Mumbai- 400614; P.B. No.15, Nagpur-440001; 6, Sansad Marg, New Delhi-110001; P.B. No.20, Panaji-403001; P.B. No.162, Patna-800001; College of Agricultural Banking, Ganeshkhind Road, Pune-411016; P.B. No.6507, Thiruvananthapuram-695033.
3. EXAMINATION CENTRES :
'WE' will be held at the following centres (Code Numbers indicated in the brackets):
Name of the Centre
Code No.
Name of the Centre
Code No.
Ahmedabad
(11)
Mumbai
(25)
Bangalore
(12)
Nagpur
(26)
Bhopal
(13)
New Delhi
(27)
Bhubaneswar
(14)
Panaji
(28)
Kolkata
(15)
Patna
(29)
Chandigarh
(16)
Pune
(30)
Chennai
(17)
Thiruvananthapuram
(31)
Guwahati
(18)
Agartala
(32)
Hyderabad
(19)
Aizawl
(33)
Jaipur
(20)
Imphal
(34)
Jammu
(21)
Itanagar
(35)
Kanpur
(22)
Kohima
(36)
Kochi
(23)
Port Blair
(37)
Lucknow
(24)
Shillong
(38)
Candidates can select only one centre and must indicate its Name and Code No. in the application. Centre and dates of 'WE' are liable to be changed at the Board's discretion. In the event of cancellation of 'WE' at any centre the Board may at its discretion allot an alternative centre to the candidates concerned. Candidates admitted to the 'WE' will be intimated dates, time table and venue of 'WE' through Admission Letters (AL). Candidates will not be admitted to the 'WE' without the AL. Request for change of centre will not be entertained.
4. RELAXATION IN THE UPPER AGE LIMIT :
Upper age is relaxable by :
(a) 3 years in the case of OBC candidates if the posts are reserved for them.
(b) 5 years in the case of: i) SC/ST candidates if the posts are reserved for them ii) Ex-employees of banking institutions whose services had to be terminated for reasons of economy or as a result of bank going into liquidation and personnel retrenched from Government Offices after at least one year's service and applying through Employment Exchanges, iii) Ex-servicemen (including Emergency Commissioned Officers/Short Service Commissioned Officers) provided applicants have rendered at least five years continuous Military Service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or/on account of physical disability or have been released on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service or on invalidment, iv) Emergency Commissioned Officers/Short Service Commissioned Officers who have completed their initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service but whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues certificates that they would be released on selection within three months from the date of receipt of offer of appointment, v) Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir between 1st January, 1980 and 31st December, 1989.
(c) 10 years for PWD (GEN); 13 years for PWD (OBC) and 15 years for PWD (SC/ST) candidates.
Note : Cumulative age relaxation will not be available either under the above items or in combination with any other items.
5. SERVICE CONDITIONS / CAREER PROSPECTS :
(i) Pay Scale :
Selected Candidates will draw a starting basic pay of Rs.21,000/- p.m. in the scale of Rs.21000-1000- 30000-EB-1000-32000-1100-36400 applicable to Officers in Grade B and they will also be eligible for Dearness Allowance, Local allowance, House Rent Allowance, Family Allowance as per rules in force from time to time. At present, initial monthly Gross emoluments to direct recruit Grade B Officers are approximately Rs.38,276/-.
(ii) Perquisites :
Bank's accommodation subject to availability, reimbursement of expenses for maintenance of vehicle for official purpose, newspaper, telephone charges, book grant, allowance for furnishing of residence, etc. as per eligibility. Free dispensary facility besides reimbursement of medical expenses for OPD treatment/hospitalization as per eligibility. Interest free festival advance, Leave Fare Concession (once in two years for self, spouse and eligible dependents). Loans and Advances at concessional rates of interest for Housing, Car, Education, Consumer Articles, Personal Computer, etc. The post also carry benefits of Provident Fund, Pension and Gratuity. Total pay and allowances along with admissible perquisites attached to the post work out at the minimum of Rs10.00 lakhs p.a. (approx.) on a cost to the Bank basis.
NOTE : For candidates possessing very high academic or professional qualification/ experience of significant value to the Bank, the Bank may, at its sole discretion, consider granting up to four advance increments. The Board, at the sole discretion, will consider requests for higher emoluments on account of higher qualification/special experience of value to the Bank at the interview stage only. Such information may be furnished in the Bio-data form in the appropriate column. The number of maximum increments will be 4. The Board/Bank will not entertain any request received after the interview.
(iii) At certain centres, limited number of residential quarters are available. Facility for securing residential accommodation on lease, however, exists at all centres.
(iv) Initial appointment will be on probation for a period of two years which may, at Bank's discretion, be extended upto a maximum period of four years.
(v) There are reasonable prospects for promotion to higher grades.
(vi) Selected candidates are liable to be posted and transferred anywhere in India.
6. APPLICATION FEE (NON-REFUNDABLE) : Rs.100/- (Rupees one hundred only). No fee is payable by SC/ST/PWD candidates. Fee is payable by Demand Draft favouring Reserve Bank of India and payable at Mumbai only. However, candidates from un-banked areas may pay fee by crossed Indian Postal Orders in favour of Reserve Bank of India payable at GPO, Mumbai. Candidates should write their Name and Address on the reverse of the Demand Draft and in the space provided for the purpose on the Postal Orders (if fee is payable) and enclose them to the application with a pin (should not be stapled). Fees sent separately not accompanied with proper application or payment in any other manner will not be accepted. Fees once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances.
7. GENERAL RULES / INSTRUCTIONS :
(I) APPLICATION FORMAT (FOR OFF-LINE MODE) IS GIVEN AT THE END. CANDIDATES APPLYING BY OFF-LINE MODE SHOULD APPLY STRICLY IN CONFORMITY WITH THE FORMAT AS PRESCRIBED.
(II) APP. NOT ACCOMPANIED BY PRESCRIBED FEES (UNLESS EXEMPTED) OR INCOMPLETE/ILLEGIBLE/NOT IN THE PRESCRIBED FORMAT/WITHOUT PHOTOGRAPH/WITHOUT SIGNATURE WILL BE REJECTED AND NO CORRESPONDENCE IN THIS REGARD WILL BE ENTERTAINED BY THE BOARD.
(III) APPLICATION MUST BE COMPLETED IN ALL RESPECTS. INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS WILL NOT BE CONSIDERED.
(IV) CANDIDATES SHOULD NOT ENCLOSE ANY CERTIFICATES OR COPIES THEREOF WITH THE APPLICATION. THEIR CANDIDATURE WILL BE CONSIDERED ON THE STRENGTH OF THE INFORMATION DECLARED IN THE APPLICATION. IF AT ANY STAGE, IT IS FOUND THAT ANY INFORMATION FURNISHED IN THE APP. IS FALSE/INCORRECT OR IF ACCORDING TO THE BOARD, THE CANDIDATE DOES NOT SATISFY THE ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA, HIS/HER CANDIDATURE/APPOINTMENT IS LIABLE TO BE CANCELLED/TERMINATED.
(V) ALL EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS MUST HAVE BEEN OBTAINED FROM RECOGNISED UNIVERSITIES/INSTITUTIONS IN INDIA OR ABROAD. IF GRADES ARE AWARDED INSTEAD OF MARKS, CANDIDATES SHOULD CLEARLY INDICATE ITS NUMERICAL EQUIVALENT.
(VI) CANDIDATES SHOULD SATISFY THEMSELVES ABOUT THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE POST APPLIED FOR. THE BOARD WOULD ADMIT TO THE 'WE' ALL THE CANDIDATES APPLYING FOR THIS POST WITH THE REQUISITE FEE (WHEREVER APPLICABLE) ON THE BASIS OF THE INFORMATION FURNISHED IN THE APP. AND SHALL DETERMINE THEIR ELIGIBILITY ONLY AT THE FINAL STAGE I.E. WHILE CALLING THEM FOR INTERVIEW.
(VII) THE BOARD SHALL NOT ENTERTAIN REQUESTS FROM THE CANDIDATES SEEKING ADVICE ABOUT THEIR ELIGIBILITY TO APPLY.
(VIII) IF A CANDIDATE DOES NOT RECEIVE ADMISSION LETTER (AL) FOR 'WE'/ANY OTHER COMMUNICATION FROM THE BOARD, HE/SHE SHOULD CONTACT THE IN-CHARGE OF THE RBI OFFICE (SBI OFFICE IN CASE OF AGARTALA, AIZAWL, IMPHAL, ITANAGAR, KOHIMA, PORT BLAIR AND SHILLONG) DURING OFFICE HOURS, AT THE EXAMINATION CENTRE INDICATED IN THE APPLICATION ALONG WITH DULY SIGNED PASSPORT SIZE PHOTOGRAPH, TWO DAYS BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAMINATION FOR NECESSARY GUIDANCE. FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH ABOVE INSTRUCTIONS WILL DEPRIVE THE CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM FOR CONSIDERATION.
(IX) CANDIDATES WILL HAVE TO APPEAR FOR THE 'WE' AT THEIR OWN EXPENSES. HOWEVER, THOSE CALLED FOR INTERVIEW, WILL BE REIMBURSED TO AND FRO ACTUAL FIRST CLASS/II AC RAILWAY FARE BY THE SHORTEST ROUTE FROM THE PLACE OF THEIR RESIDENCE/PLACE OF WORK TO THE PLACE OF INTERVIEW WHICHEVER IS NEARER.
(X) IN ALL CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE BOARD, ROLL NO. INDICATED IN 'AL' MUST BE QUOTED.
(XI) CHANGE OF ADDRESS, IF ANY, SHOULD BE INFORMED TO THE BOARD IMMEDIATELY. ALTHOUGH EVERY EFFORT WILL BE MADE TO TAKE ON RECORD SUCH CHANGES, THE BOARD DOES NOT ACCEPT ANY RESPONSIBILITY IN THE MATTER, PARTICULARLY WHEN THE TIME GAP BETWEEN RECEIPT OF INTIMATION AND DATE OF EXAMINATION / INTERVIEW IS VERY SHORT.
(XII) CANDIDATES ALREADY IN SERVICE OF GOVT./QUASI-GOVT. ORGANISATIONS AND PUBLIC SECTOR BANKS /UNDERTAKINGS WILL HAVE TO PRODUCE A "NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE" FROM THEIR EMPLOYER, AT THE TIME OF INTERVIEW. HOWEVER, BEFORE APPOINTMENT IN RBI, A PROPER DISCHARGE CERTIFICATE FROM THE EMPLOYER WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED. IF THE APP. IS REQUIRED TO BE ROUTED THROUGH THE EMPLOYER AND IN THE PROCESS IT REACHES THE BOARD'S OFFICE AFTER THE CLOSING DATE, IT WILL NOT BE CONSIDERED EVEN THOUGH THE APPLICANT SUBMITTED THE APP. TO THE EMPLOYER BEFORE THE CLOSING DATE. IN SUCH CASES, APP. MARKED 'ADVANCE COPY' SHOULD BE SENT TO THE BOARD'S OFFICE DIRECT, TOGETHER WITH FEE AND THE REGULAR COPY (WITHOUT FEE) SHOULD BE ROUTED THROUGH THE EMPLOYER.
(XIII) CANVASSING IN ANY FORM WILL BE A DISQUALIFICATION.
(XIV) IN ALL MATTERS REGARDING ELIGIBILITY, CONDUCT OF EXAMINATIONS, INTERVIEW, ASSESSMENT, PRESCRIBING MINIMUM QUALIFYING STANDARDS IN 'WE' AND INTERVIEW, IN RELATION TO NUMBER OF VACANCIES AND COMMUNICATION OF RESULT, THE BOARD'S DECISION SHALL BE FINAL AND BINDING ON THE CANDIDATES AND NO CORRESPONDENCE SHALL BE ENTERTAINED IN THIS REGARD.
(XV) MOBILE PHONES, PAGERS, OR ANY OTHER COMMUNICATION DEVICES ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE PREMISES, WHERE THE EXAMINATION IS BEING CONDUCTED. ANY INFRINGEMENT OF THESE INSTRUCTIONS SHALL ENTAIL DISCIPLINARY ACTION INCLUDING BAN FROM FUTURE EXAMINATIONS.
(XVI) THE BOARD DOES NOT FURNISH THE MARK-SHEET TO CANDIDATES. HOWEVER, THE PHASE II 'WE' AND INTERVIEW MARKS MAY BE AVAILABLE ON THE BANK'S WEBSITE AFTER THE DECLARATION OF THE FINAL RESULT.
(XVII) THE POST IS ALSO OPEN TO THE EMPLOYEES OF RBI (STAFF CANDIDATES) WHO SATISFY THE ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA SEPARATELY STIPULATED BY THE BANK.
8. SUBMISSION OF THE APPLICATION :
Candidates can apply for the post either on the prescribed Application (OFF-LINE) or submit the application ON-LINE followed up by sending a printout (hardcopy) of the online application to the Board's office.
(i) ON–LINE: The candidate can apply ON-LINE using the link/URL http://onlinedr.rbi.org.in Detailed 'Instructions for Applying ON-LINE' are available on this link. Candidates should read the instructions carefully and then click on "Apply" link.
Salient features of the system of On Line Application are given hereunder:
a) Before starting filling up of ON–LINE application, a candidate must purchase the DD or IPO for Rs. 100/- (except SC/ST/PWD candidates who are exempted from payment of fees).
b) Fee exempted category candidates can straightway fill the ON–LINE application.
c) Candidates NEED to take a PRINTOUT (hard copy) of their ON-LINE Application after submission of the data through the system. A signed photograph must be pasted (not to be stapled) at the specified place on the printout and the candidate must sign on the printout of the application and attach DD or IPO of Rs.100/- (if required to pay fee).
d) Candidates need to send the system generated print out (hard copy) of the ON-LINE Application to the Reserve Bank of India Services Board's Office (RBISB) by ordinary post. In case the print out (hard copy) is not received by the Board by the CLOSING DATE mentioned in this advertisement, the ON-LINE application will not be entertained and will be rejected.
e) Applications should not be submitted more than once. Duplicate applications will not be entertained and will be rejected.
f) The ON-LINE applications can be submitted till 11.59 P.M. on November 8, 2010 after which the link will be disabled.
(ii) OFF–LINE : The candidates must apply in the Application format published in this advertisement. It should be typed or neatly handwritten in Hindi or English on a good quality "White foolscap size" paper. All the columns in the application (except PWD category and Fee, if not applicable) must be filled legibly or typed. Incomplete and illegible applications will be rejected.
(iii) OFF-LINE Application or printout of the ON-LINE Application (hard copy), as the case may be, have to be sent by ordinary post to
"The General Manager, Reserve Bank of India Services Board, Post Bag No. 14501, Mumbai Central Post Office, Mumbai-400008".
The cover should be superscribed "APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF OFFICERS in Gr.B (General) - (DR)".
(iv) OFF-LINE Application or printout of the ON-LINE Application (hard copy), as the case may be, in closed cover, may also be deposited in the box specially kept for the purpose at Reserve Bank of India, Opposite Mumbai Central Railway Station, Mumbai Central, Mumbai 400 008.
(v) Candidates should apply either by ON-LINE mode (followed up by sending a printout of the online application) or OFF-LINE mode. They should not submit application by both the modes. Duplicate applications will be rejected.
9. CLOSING DATE :
(i) OFF-LINE Application or the printout of the ON-LINE Application, as the case may be, should reach the Board's Office on or before 6.00 P.M. on November 15, 2010.
(ii) In the case of App. received only by post from candidates living abroad, in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura; Ladakh division of Jammu and Kashmir State; Lahaul and Spiti Districts and Pangi Sub-division of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh; Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep, the last date of receipt of Applications will be on or before 6.00 P.M. on November 22, 2010. For Applications received in any manner other than by post, the benefit of extended time will not be available.
(iii) The Board takes no responsibility for any delay in receipt of Applications or loss thereof in postal transit.
10. CHECK-LIST FOR SUBMISSION OF THE APPLICATION :
(i) The Format of the application given below should not itself be used as application.
(ii) The App. strictly in conformity with the Format as prescribed must be typed or neatly hand-written in Hindi or English on a good quality "White foolscap size" paper and duly affixed (not stapled) with a signed latest passport size photograph. Candidates should ensure that all the entries have been correctly filled in and the Application, as also the photograph are signed. Application without signature, photo, fee (if applicable), not in prescribed Format, incomplete or illegible shall be rejected.
(iii) Name and Address in the application must be written IN CAPITAL LETTERS in English only, since processing is computerized.
(iv) Candidates should write their name and address on the reverse of the Demand Draft and in the space provided for the purpose on the Postal Orders (if fee is payable) and enclose them to the application with a pin (should not be stapled).
(v) The post applied for should be superscribed on top of the cover containing the Application.
(vi) Candidates must ensure that the Application [either OFF-LINE or printout of the ON-LINE] along with DD/IPO (if applicable) should reach the Board's office on or before the CLOSING DATE. Even after the successful submission of ON-LINE application through the system, unless the system generated signed print-out of the ONLINE application together with fee (if applicable) and photograph is received by post at the Board's office within the closing date, the ONLINE application is not valid and will be rejected.

Monday, 27 September 2010

RBI PREVIOUS EXAMS QUESTIONS


General Awareness
 
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an

(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?

(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the

(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?

(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?

(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission

(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for

(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all other things decreasing”
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as

(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?

(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in

(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the

(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is

(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answers Part – I :
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)

RBI Grade (B) Officers Recruitment Exam Paper 2009




ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Direction (Qs. 1 to 5) :   
Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3)
and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in bold in the given sentence to make it
grammatically correct?  If the sentence is correct as it is
and no correction is required, then mark your answer as (5) :

1.    Ultimately he received the honour he deserve.
    (1)    Gained the honour he deserve
    (2)    Received the honour he deserves
    (3)    Received the honour he deserved
    (4)    Bags the honour he deserve
    (5)    No correction required
Ans: ( 3 )    Received the honour he deserved
2.  I am totally opposite in the statement of some of our
Managers.
    (1)    Totally oppose to the
    (2)    Absolutely oppose by the
    (3)    Totally opposed to the
    (4)    Completely opposed in the
    (5)    No correction required
Ans: ( 3 )    Totally opposed to the
3.Gayatri turned down the job offer to accommodate her friend.
    (1)    Job offered in accommodate
    (2)    Job offers for accommodate
    (3)    Job offer to accommodating
    (4)    Job offer in accommodate
    (5)    No correction require
Ans:    ( 5 )    No correction required
4. She was informed that everyone of them are aware of the fact.
    (1)    Were aware of
    (2)    Are aware of
    (3)    Was aware of
    (4)    Is aware of
    (5)    No correction required
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Was aware of
5.    She has being venturing into areas which she had always
avoided in the past.
    (1)    Has been venturing into
    (2)    Has venturing into
    (3)    Would venturing into
    (4)    Had venturing into
    (5)    No correction required
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Has been venturing into
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) :    Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in
it.   The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence.  The number of that part will be your answer.  If
there is no error (ignore errors of punctuation, if any),
then your answer will be (5).
6.    They never thought (1) / that Joshi is (2) / oldest than
the other (3) / Professors in the Faculty. (4) / No error (5)
    Ans:    ( 3 )   
7.    Taken into consideration (1) / the advice of his (2) /
colleagues he decided (3) / to stay in the Institute. (4) /
No error (5)
    Ans:    ( 1 )   
8.    I am likely contact (1) / you sometime in (2) / next week
to (3) / discuss with you in detail. (4) / No error (5)
    Ans:    ( 1 )   
9.    The police has making (1) / every effort to provide (2) /
best help and (3) / attention to each citizen. (4) / No
error (5)
    Ans:    ( 1 )   
10.    He cannot withdraw (1) / all his money (2) / unless he
do not (3) / give advance notice. (4) / No error (5)
    Ans:    ( 3&4 )  
 
Directions (Qs. 11 to 25) :    Read the following passage to
answer these questions given below it.  Certain words /
phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions :
    The suicide attacks by militant Palestinian groups killing
large numbers of Israeli civilians and the harsh Israeli
response, have raised the renewed hopes of peace in the
region.  It is Arafat?s leadership and authority that are
being severely tested in the latest phase of the west Asian
crisis.
    By accusing the Palestinian Authority (PA) of supporting
terrorism by groups, Israel hopes to put pressure on Arafat
to act.  Arafat, on the other hand, has never looked a less
powerful force than he does today.  If he acts against the
militants and elements in his own Fatah movement sympathetic
to them, he risks a Palestinian civil conflict.  But if he
chooses to do nothing, he faces erosion of his authority and
all claim to a central role in the peace process.   Whatever
he does, sections of the Palestinians will hold that he has
gone too far and Israel that he has not gone for enough.
This is, of course, why Arafat has invariably shrunk from
hard decision.  He has refrained from curbing the militant
groups, explaining his inaction as necessary to maintain
Palestinian unity. 
    The Palestinian leadership?s inability to improve economic
conditions for its people has been a decisive factor in the
erosion of its ability to act.  Palestinians in Gaza have
targeted the PA as being responsible for their condition.
The Militant organizations have capitalized on the PA?s
failure to establish a functioning administrative
infrastructure by setting up a parallel welfare system with
the help of the millions of dollars.   Though the
Palestinian security forces claim to have arrested more than
100 militants after the suicide bomb attacks in Israel, the
other similar militant groups remain defiant, confident of
their popular support and of the certainty that in the
ultimate analysis the PA leadership will stop short of
decisive action against them.
    That the militant groups enjoy popular support in Gaza is
hardly surprising.  The Gaza Strip today resembles a vast
prison camp in which some 1.2 million Palestinians are
crammed.  Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000 Israeli settlers
still remain in 20 percent of the Gaza?s area and are
protected by heavily armed Israeli forces.  With its recent
blockade of and extensive incursion into PA controlled
territories, the Israeli government has placed the whole
civil society in Palestine under siege.  Over 450 NGOs,
eight universities and numerous other educational, civic,
social, developmental and health institutions have had their
work impeded and their vital services to the population
blocked.  An international conference on Israel?s treatment
of human rights in West Bank and Gaza, attended by
signatories to the 1949 Geneva Conventions, that has opened
in Switzerland overriding Israeli and American protests, is
expected to censor Israel for its treatment of civilians in
the Palestinian territories.
    Arafat?s standing among Palestinians rests on the authority
conferred on the PA by the international community to
represent and speak for the Palestinians.  Even the major
militant group has so far never openly challenged Arafat?s
leadership.  Israel?s latest vicious attacks directed
against the PA and Arafat present the international
community with the danger that this precarious balance of
power in the Palestinian community may be destroyed.
Continuance of the Israeli attacks can only further
radicalize and harden the attitudes of ordinary
Palestinians.  On the other hand, Israeli moves to freeze
further expansion of Jewish settlements in the West Bank and
Gaza and, as soon as security conditions permit it, ease the
economic blockade of Palestinian towns?however remote such
measures appear just now?alone can restore the authority of
the PA and give it a chance to get a grip on Palestinian
militancy.
11. Which of the following factors have raised the hope for
peace in West Asia?
A.  Killings of Israeli civilians
B.  Harsh response of Israelites
C.  Revocation of Oslo Accord
    (1)    Only A and C
    (2)    Only B and C
    (3)    Both A and B
    (4)    Either A or B
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Both A and B
12.    Which of the following explains the lack of action on
the part of Palestinian leader?
    (1)    He fears the army action against him
    (2)    This according to him will fasten peace process
    (3)    He feels that this step will keep Palestinians united
    (4)    He is seriously worried about the degeneration of his
power base
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 4 )    He is seriously worried about the degeneration
of his power base
13.    What is ultimate analysis of other similar militant groups?
    (1)    The PA leadership will only act if a definite forceful
action is taken on the PA
    (2)    The suicidal attacks will only aggravate the situation
    (3)    The PA leadership should be changed
    (4)    The action on the Palestinians was justified
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 5 )    None of these
14.    Which of the following words is just opposite in meaning
to the word impeded as used in the passage?
    (1)    Hindered
    (2)    Facilitated
    (3)    Felicitated
    (4)    Stopped
    (5)    Courage
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Hindered
15.    What does the word overriding mean as used in the passage?
    (1)    Notwithstanding
    (2)    Concurring
    (3)    Welcoming
    (4)    Criticizing
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Notwithstanding
16.    Which of the following best describes the meaning of the
word challenged as used in the passage?
    (1)    Questioned
    (2)    Accepted
    (3)    Attacked
    (4)    Scared
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Questioned
17.    Which of the following is the most similar word as
accusing as used in the passage?
    (1)    Abusing
    (2)    Blaming
    (3)    Charging
    (4)    Responding
    (5)    Praising
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Blaming
18.    Which of the following is the expected outcome of
International Conference which is in progress in Switzerland?
    (1)    To revoke 1949 Geneva Convention
    (2)    Impose censorship on propaganda of PA
    (3)    To build cordial relations between Conflicting parties
    (4)    To put a curb on Israel?s policies while treating
civilians in an alien territory
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 3 )    To build cordial relations between Conflicting
parties
19.    Which of the following best explains the word vicious as
used in the passage?
    (1)    Dangerous
    (2)    Fatal
    (3)    Reoccurring and cyclic
    (4)    Cyclic but not reoccurring
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Reoccurring and cyclic
20.    Which of the following best explains the word remote as
used in the passage?
    (1)    Far away from reality
    (2)    Distant
    (3)    Most likely to happen
    (4)    Control in someone else?s hand
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Far away from reality
21.    Who according to the passage conferred the authority to PA?
    (1)    Arafat
    (2)    Israel
    (3)    Militant groups
    (4)    International community
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 4 )    International community
22.    Which of the following can restore the degenerating
authority of the PA?
A.  Arresting the expansion of Jewish settlements
B.  Easening the economic blockade of Palestinian towns
    (1)    Only A
    (2)    Only B
    (3)    Either A or B
    (4)    Both A and B together
    (5)    Neither A or B
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Both A and B together
23.    Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning
as the word shrunk as used in the passage?
    (1)    Coming forward
    (2)    Abdicating
    (3)    Control
    (4)    Expand
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Coming forward
24.    What may be the affect of continuous Israeli attacks?
    (1)    It may harness a negative attitude amongst the civil
Palestinians
    (2)    It may destroy militancy from its basic roots
    (3)    It may revitalize the weakening leadership of the PA
    (4)    It may enhance militant activities
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 4 )    It may enhance militant activities
25.    What dangers are being perceived by the International
Community?
    (1)    Both the nations may get destroyed if war erupts
    (2)    The PA and Israel will never strike a deal
    (3)    The attacks against the PA may destroy the balance of
power in Palestinians
    (4)    The militancy may spread in other countries also
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 3 )    The attacks against the PA may destroy the
balance of power in Palestinians
Directions (Qs. 26 to 35) :    In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered.  These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each, five words
are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word in each case:
    Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth
century disappeared when the Mughal Empire ???(26) apart.
The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious
intolerance, which led to the open rebellion.  It was to
???(27) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent ???(28)
years in the field, with immense armies consuming the
revenues of the country.  There were, however, more
deep-seated ???(29)   The corruption of officials and the
oppression of the masses steadily ???(30) away the empire?s
life blood.  For sometime, there had been a noticeable
deterioration in the character of the ruling class.  Wars of
succession ???(31) wiped out the leading families, and new
blood from central Asia was no ???(32) recruited for the
higher governmental posts.  Finally, the Mughal Empire was
an alien regime.  It continues to be so ???(33) Akbar?s
policy of conciliation was abandoned, and it wore itself out
trying to maintain its power ???(34) the ceaseless
opposition, only now and then overt but always present, of
the (35) citizens.
26.    (1)    Joined
    (2)    Broke
    (3)    Dashed
    (4)    Banged
    (5)    Became
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Broke
27.    (1)    Run out
    (2)    Crash
    (3)    Crush
    (4)    Cajole
    (5)    Motivate
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Crush
28.    (1)    No
    (2)    Hardly
    (3)    Many
    (4)    Inexpensive
    (5)    Most
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Many
29.    (1)    Variables
    (2)    Attributes
    (3)    Characteristics
    (4)    Causes
    (5)    Affect
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Causes
30.    (1)    Drained
    (2)    Gone
    (3)    Sucked
    (4)    Released
    (5)    Went
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Drained
31.    (1)    Has
    (2)    Have
    (3)    Was
    (4)    Did
    (5)    Had
    Ans:    ( 5 )    Had
32.    (1)    Longer
    (2)    Pumped
    (3)    Far
    (4)    Candidate
    (5)    Shorter
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Longer
33.    (1)    At
    (2)    Into
    (3)    Over
    (4)    After
    (5)    Before
    Ans:    ( 4 )    After
34.    (1)    Far
    (2)    At
    (3)    Against
    (4)    Favouring
    (5)    For
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Against
35.    (1)    Discontented
    (2)    Weeping
    (3)    Ruling
    (4)    Calm
    (5)    Contented
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Discontented
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) :    Pick out the most effective
word/phrase from the given words to fill in the blanks to
make the sentences meaningfully complete:
36.    Tiwari?s weill-wishers went to the extreme to _____ his
business reputation.
    (1)    Speak
    (2)    Enhance
    (3)    Cajole
    (4)    Provoke
    (5)    Advocate
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Enhance
37.    A group of junior college boys _____ the highest peak of
the Shivalik range of the Himalayas.
    (1)    Scaled
    (2)    Walked
    (3)    Climb up
    (4)    Avoided
    (5)    Won
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Scaled
38.    A special programme to raise the standard of living of
the village folks has been _____ by the Government.
    (1)    Affixed
    (2)    Stalled
    (3)    Glued
    (4)    Launched
    (5)    Propose
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Launched
39.    A herd of elephants _____ ready to attack the lion.
    (1)    Were
    (2)    Is
    (3)    Was
    (4)    Are
    (5)    Has been
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Is
40.    It is not possible this year to run this company with so
many employees, without increasing the _____ of deficit.
    (1)    Loss
    (2)    Altitude
    (3)    Gain
    (4)    Magnitude
    (5)    Extend
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Magnitude

Thursday, 22 July 2010

Reserve Bank of India Executive Intern 200 Posts Recruitment


Reserve Bank of India (RBI), fully owned by the Government of India supervises the operations of banks & financial organizations.RBI has over 22 regional offices across India.Reserve Bank of India is recruiting for
200 Executive Intern posts.

Dates : Last date for online application registration: 23.08.2010 
Last date for sending postal applications: 30.08.2010 
Date of written exam – 24.10.2010

Post – Vacancies – Payscale:
Executive Interns (contact basis) – 200 posts – Rs.50000 /year



Eligibility: Those interested to apply for jobs in Reserve bank of India,
* Bachelor`s degree with min.60% (1st class) as on 1.7.2010
* Should be within 21 – 30 yrs of age, as on 1.7.2010
* Must have completed certificate course in information technology (computers )

Selection : The Selection process will be based on Written test & Interview for Executive Interns recruitment.The 3 hrs objective test is for 200 marks & consists of 1) General Awareness 2) English Language 3) Quantitative Aptitude 4) Reasoning.Those securing the qualifying cut-off marks will be shortlisted & called for Interview.

Application (no fee for SC/ST/PWD): The application fee of Rs.100 via DD /PO favoring Reserve bank of India has to be drawn & payable at Mumbai.Candidates can apply online through onlinedr.rbi.org.in & send the printout along with DD OR fill the application form as given on the website to submit through post.

Refer : Candidates can read more about AAI job recruitment 2010 & apply online through their website here