D.C.R.U.S.T Murthal: BSNL JTO PAPER PATTERN

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Saturday, 24 July 2010

BSNL JTO CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPER SECTION-I

BSNL JTO CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPER:

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs.

Section-I

Question Number 1-20 carry 1 mark each

1. A brick laid with its length across the wall is known as a

(A) stretcher

(B) header

(D) bat

2. Which of the following is not a mobile crane type?

(A) Bottom slewing tower crane

(B) Telescopic-boom truck mounted crane

(D) Lattice-boom truck mounted crane

3. A principle plane is a plane of

(A) minimum tensile stress
(B) maximum tensile stress

(D) zero shear stress

4. (i) Rapid hardening Portland cement is used in mass concrete construction for lowering the heat of hydration.

(ii) Rapid hardening Portland cement is blended cement.

Which of the following option is correct?

(A) (i) is false and (ii) is true

(B) (i) is true and (ii) is false

(D) Both (i) and (ii) is true

5. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) The nominal dimension of a brick is greater than its specified dimension by thickness of the mortar joint.

(B) The nominal dimension of a brick is less than its specified dimension by thickness of the mortar joint.

(D) The nominal dimension of a brick is less than its specified dimension by twice the thickness of the mortar joint.

6. Which of the following equipment is used primarily to excavate below the natural ground surface on which it rests?

(A) Dozer

(B) Scrapper

(D) Jaw crusher

7. The phenomenon in which, some of the water in the mix tends to rise to the freshly placed concrete is known as

(A) flash set

(B) bleeding

(D) hydration

8. In a network diagram, the early start time of an activity is

(A) the minimum of the late finish times of all its immediate predecessors

(B) the minimum of the early finish times of all its immediate predecessors

(D) the maximum of the early finish times of all its immediate predecessors

9. Which of the following compound is most widely used as an accelerating admixture in concrete?

(A) Sugar

(B) Calcium chloride

(D) Synthetic detergents

10. Which method of compaction is appropriate for sand?

(A) Impact

(B) Pressure

(D) Kneading

11. Partial safety factor for concrete and steel in limit state method of design of RC structures are assumed as

(A) 1.35 and 1.2 respectively

(B) 1.14 and 1.25 respectively

(D) 1.5 and 1.15 respectively

12. Which of the following is not a soft wood?

(A) Oak

(B) Fir

(D) Spruce

13. In a network diagram, the total float of an activity is equal to

(A) (Late finish time)-(Late start time)

(B) (Late finish time)-(Early finish time)

(D) (Late start time)-( Early finish time)

14. As per IS 456 : 2000, the maximum spacing of steel bars in a reinforced concrete solid slab is

(A) 300 mm

(B) 450 mm

(D) 3 times the effective depth

15. Which of the following is fly ash based blended cement?

(A) Portland slag cement
(B) Low-heat Portland cement

(D) Ordinary Portland cement

16. Which of the following test is performed on hardened concrete to assess the hardness of its surface?

(A) Rebound hammer test

(B) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test

(D) Flexural test

17. In a PERT network, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time of an activity are 4 days, 16 days and 7 days respectively. What is the value of the expected duration of the activity?

(A) 27 days

(B) 8 days

(D) 19 days

18. (i) The addition of fly ash in concrete lowers the heat of hydration in concrete.

(ii) The addition of fly ash in concrete reduces its permeability.

Which of the following option is correct?

(A) (i) is false and (ii) is true

(B) (i) is true and (ii) is false

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are true

19. The crack resulting in lengthwise separation of wood, occurring between and parallel to annual rings is known as

(A) check

(B) knot

(D) shake

20. Which of the following compound is mainly responsible for the early strength development of hydrated Portland cement?

(A) C3S

(B) C2S

(D) C4AF

Question Number 21-50 carry 2 marks each

21. A cantilever beam of length l and flexural rigidity EI is subjected to a clockwise couple M_o at the free end. The downward deflection at the free end will be

(A) M_o l²/ 2 EI (B) M_o l²/ 4 EI
(C) M_o l²/ 6 EI (D) M_o l²/ 8 EI

22. A simply supported beam of span L carries two vertical point loads W at L/3 from both ends. The equivalent uniformly distributed load to produce same maximum bending moment as that of the two concentrated loads on the beam is

(A) 4W/L (B) 3W/8
(C) 8W/3L (D) 4W/3L

23. A beam simply supported at the ends carries uniformly distributed load throughout the span. The depth/breadth ratio is 2:1. Now the same beam is used without any modification of cross-sectional area to carry the same uniformly distributed load but with depth/breadth ratio of 1:2. The ratio of maximum deflection of the first case to the second case is

(A) 1:2 (B) 1:4
(C) 2:1 (D) 4:1

25. A two span continuous beam ABC (AB=BC) is fixed at A and freely supported at B and C. The beam is only loaded in the span BC. The flexural rigidities of two spans are equal and supports are at the same level. If M_A and M_B are the moments at supports A and B respectively, which of the following relationships is correct?

(A) M_A= M_B (C) M_A = -2 M_B

(B) M_A= 0.5 M_B (D) M_A = -0.5M_B

26. A concrete beam of rectangular section of 300 mm X 500 mm is pre-stressed with 750 kN force, the centre of pre-stressing steel being 100 mm from the centroid and area of the cross-section about horizontal axis passing through the centroid and area of the cross-section are 3.125 X 10⁹ mm⁴ and 1.5 X 10⁵ mm² respectively. Neglecting the effect of self weight, the stresses at top and bottom fibres are

(A) 5 MPa (compressive) and 12 MPa (compressive) respectively

(B) 3.4 MPa (tensile) and 12 MPa (compressive) respectively

(D) 2.5 MPa (tensile) and 14.5 MPa (compressive) respectively

27. In a two dimensional state of stress, direct stresses in x and y direction are +90 MPa and +40 MPA, and shear stress of --30 MPa. If Mohrs circle is drawn with scale of 1 cm = 10 MPa, then centre of Mohrs circle from the origin is located at a distance of

(A) 3.5 cm (B) 4.5 cm
(C) 7.5 cm (D) 6.5 cm

28. A propped cantilever is of length 6 m. The flexural rigidity of the beam is 10000 kN.m². If the propped end undergoes a settlement of 12 mm, then magnitude of the moment induced at the fixed end is

(A) 20 kN.m (B) 16 kN.m
(C) 10 kN.m (D) 0

30. A beam of total length L² is fixed at both the ends. There are two internal hinges, each is at one third of the span from either end. The beam carries uniformly distributed load w per m run throughout the entire span. The banding moment at the fixed support is

(A) w L²/ 7 (B) w L²/ 9
(C) w L²/ 10 (D) w L²/ 12

33. A sample of coarse aggregate has the following information :

Weight of oven dry sample = 565 gm, weight of wet (moist) sample = 600 gm, weight of sample in saturated surface dry condition = 580 gm. What are the values of water absorption (%) and free moisture content?

(A) 2.65% and 3.54% respectively (C) 3.33% and 2.5% respectively

(B) 3.54% and 2.65% respectively (D) 2.5% and 3.33% respectively

34. For a concrete mix of 1 m³, the water, coarse aggregate and fine aggregate contents are 200 kg, 1200 kg and 600 kg respectively. The water to cement ratio (w/c ratio) by mass is 0.50 and the coarse aggregate content is reduced by 50 kg from their respective original values, what is the new w/c ratio keeping in view that the fine aggregate content and the total quantity of all ingredients remain same in both cases?

(A) 0.61 (B) 0.41
(C) 0.31 (D) 0.51

35. What is the ratio of target mean strength at 28 days of M 25 grade of concrete to that of M 20 grade of concrete?Given, s = standard deviation= 4 N/mm², t = a statistical value, corresponding to 5% of test results below the characteristic compressive strength = 1.65.

(A) 1.25 (B) 1.37
(C) 1.18 (D)0.8

36. The split-tension test is conducted on a concrete cylinder of length 0.3 m and diameter 0.15 m.The maximum load applied to the specimen is 200 kN. What is the value of split tensile strength?

(A) 2.83 N/mm² (C) 5.66 N/mm²

(B) 1.41 N/mm² (D) 4.24 N/mm²

39. A two span continuous beam AB and BC was subjected to concentrated load of 20 kN at middle of span BC. The deflection under the load was 0.02 m(downward) and that in the middle of the span AB was 0.01 m (upward). When 16 kN and 40 kN loads are applied simultaneously at the middle of the span AB and BC respectively, then downward deflection at the middle of span BC will be

(A) 0.016 m (B) 0.032 m
(C) 0.064 m (D) 0.08 m

43. A propped cantilever of span 3L is having plastic moment carrying capacity M_p. It carries a concentrated load at a distance of L from the fixed end. Collapse load for the beam is

(A) 2M_p / L (B) M_p / L
(C) 2.5M_p / L (D) 1.5M_p / L

44. In a RC beam of rectangular cross-section (breadth = 200 mm; effective depth = 350 mm), vertical stirrups 2-legged 8 mm diameter are provided at a spacing of 200 mm c/c. Given, cross-sectional area of 8 mm bar (Fe 415) = 50.3 mm² , and design shear strength of concrete is 0.5 MPa, total shear capacity of the section will be

(A) 64.68 kN (B) 72.45 kN

45. A beam of length L is fixed at both ends. The beam carries uniformly distributed load of intensity w per unit length covering the entire span. The points of contra-flexure are at

(A) at mid (B) at the first end (C) at the second end (d) at both the end

46. A steel column of hollow circular cross-section (external diameter = D and internal diameter = d) hinged at both ends is subjected to compressive load. If the length of the column is L and modulus of elasticity of steel is E, the critical stress of column according to Eulers formula will be

(A) (D²+ d²) (C) (D²+ d²)

(B) (D²+ d²) (D) (D²+ d²)

47. A rivet of 20 mm diameter is used to connect 10 mm thick plate. The permissible stress for rivet in shear and bearing are 80 MPa and 250 MPa, respectively. The difference of rivet value in double and single shear is

(A) 29044 N (B) 26875 N
(C) 24706 N (D) 23868 N

48. A semi-circular arch of radius R hinged at two ends and at the crown carries uniformly distributed load q per unit length. The normal thrust at the crown will be

(A) q R / 2 (B) q R / 4
(C) q R / 8 (D) q R

49. The effective length of fillet welded joint is 210 mm. If the size of the weld is 6 mm and permissible stress is 108 MPa, the safe load that the joint can transmit is

(A) 95256 N (B) 85256 N

50. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress in a solid circular cross-section is

(A) 1.11 (B) 1.22

BSNL PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

Tags:-bsnl jto previous year papers,jto civil engineering paper,jto old papers,bsnl jto electronics paper,jto ECs papers,bsnl jto model paper,jto guessing paper,jto computer science paper,jto information technology papers,basnl jto samlpe papers,bsnl jto guess papers,jto sample papers, bsnl jto papers,jto past 5 years papers,

BHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LIMITED PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS:

BSNL PREVIOUS YEAR ELCTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING PAPERS

BSNL PREVIOUS YEAR CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPERS

BSNL PREVIOUS YEAR ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING PAPERS

BSNL JTO PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS 2005 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

BSNL JTO PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS 2005 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

SECTION-III

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE:

1.His handwriting was not ----- so I could not read his note
a) attractive
b) eligible
c) clear
d) legible
2. They started to ----- people into the theatre only at six -
a) enter
b) admit
c) follow
d) accept
3. I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending
b) ordinary
c) durable
d) cheap
4. Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'evident'-
a) doubtful
b) unimportant
c) disagreed
d) understood
5. I expressed by disagreement ------ him on that issue-
a) between
b) with
c) about
d) for
6. Sugarbowl of the world is -
a) India
b) Cuba
c) Brazil
d) USA
7. Palk strait separates-
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra
8. The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 10
9. Tides in the sea are caused by-
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces
10. . The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140
b) 200
c) 150
d) 100
11. Aswan Dam is located in-
a) Egypt
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Iran
12. Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -
a) Rajasthan
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
13. Dry ice is-
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these
14. East flower river of India is -
a) Cauvery
b) sone
c) Narmada
d) Tapti
15. The total length of the great wall of China is
a) 1,400 miles
b) 1,500 miles
c) 1,300 miles
d) 1,400 miles
16. Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-
a) beriberi
b) night blindness
c) dermatitis
d) Scurvy
17. Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a period of
a) 11 months
b) 2 years
c) 18 months
d) 15 months
18. Indian local time is based on-
a) 800 E longitude
b) E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude
19. The two days Shiv Shena Mahashivir of 2002 started at Shirdi on
a) 9th April 2002
b) 10th April 2002
c) 8th April 2002
d) 11th April 2002
20. Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sugar
d) None of the above

Friday, 23 July 2010

BSNL JTO 2005 PAPER SECTION-I

Tags:-bsnl jto previous year papers,jto 2005 paper,jto 2009 paper,jto gussing paper,jto model paper,bsnl jto papers,jto 2008 paper,jto paper 2010

BSNL JTO 2005 PAPER

SECTION-I

1. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases

2. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter

3. When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then ?
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium

4. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be ?
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = n^2/ND, the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes ?

a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons

6. The location of lighting arrestor is ?
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

7. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is ?
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

8. Telemetering is a method of ?
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

9. When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1� 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be
a) 2W

b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W

10. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current ?
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is ?
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD

12. When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is ?
a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower

13. In a JFET gates are always ?
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none

14. The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of ?
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

15. An SCR conducts appreciable current when ?
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

16. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

17. An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be ?
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V

18. When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is

a) 5 ohm
b) 10 ohm
c) 15 ohm
d) 20 ohm

19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be

20. Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements ?

a) Z11 = Z22

b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22

c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21

d) Z12 = Z21

21.When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is

a) 12/13 ohm

b) 13/12 ohm

c) 3 ohm

d) 4 ohm

22. The value of G12 or (V2/V1) for the circuit shown in the fig. is

23. The two port network of the fig. shown has open circuit impedance parameters given by matrix

24.In the circuit shown, the switch closes at t = 0. The voltage across 4microF capacitor in ideal condition charges to

a) 0
b) 16V
c) 15V
d) 24V

25. While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are

a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by 'shorts'
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources

26. Maxwell's loop current method of solving electrical networks �
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff's voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method

27. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 - j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a) (30 + j40 ) ohms
b) ( 30 -j40 ) ohms
c) (50 + j40 ) ohms
d) (50 -j40 ) ohms

28. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized

29. A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors

30. The number of lobes on each side of a 3 resonant antenna is
a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) 1

31. The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as-
a) 1/r
b)1/r^2
c)1/r^3
d)1/r^4

32. Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -

a) 73 ohm
b) 144 ohm
c) 288 ohm
d) 216 ohm

33. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it�s power is increased by -
a) 100%
b) 150 %
c) 50%
d) 0%

34. On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon

35. TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X

36. For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 A meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to ?
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used

37. In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is �
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity

38. The flow rate of elctrically conducting liquid without any suspended practicle cannot be measured by
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters

39. The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge

40. When variable reluctance type techometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be�
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm

41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to �
a) 1.732 V
b) 1.0 V
c) 0.7746 V
d) 0.5V

42. One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-
a) strain gauge
b) pitot tube
c) Bourden tube
d) Rotameter

43. It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be �
a) chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) chromel - alumel
d) platinum- rhodium

44. In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f

45. Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit

a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper

46. Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point

47. Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above

48. In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages

49. Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above

50. In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is-
a) 1/2 I
b) 1/3 I
c) 1/4 I
d) I

51. In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-

a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above

52. Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content

53. An amplifier of class A is that in which -
a) Base is biased to cut - off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc

54. A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = beta IC
b) IC=beta IB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB

55. For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch

56. . A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kohm, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ohms. The hib for this transistor will be-

a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW

57. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -
a) 110 MHz
b) 112 Hz
c) 114 MHz
d) 120 MHz

58. In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-

a)OV

b) VCC - IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above

59. See the circuit shown and choose the correct option

a)Only red will glow

b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow

60. A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be �
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A

Monday, 26 July 2010

BSNL JTO CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPER