BANK OF BARODA AO EXAM 2008

Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam 2008
(Held on 14-12-2008)
Professional Knowledge(Agriculture) Solved Paper

1. How many mango trees will be accommodated with a spacing of 5•0 m x 5•0 m in an area one Hectare ?
(A) 400 tree/ha
(B) 750 tree/ha
(C) 800 tree/ha
(D) 850 tree/ha
(E) 900 tree/ha

2. Of the Total Net Bank Credit (NBC) of the Public Sector Banks at the end of March 2007, what is the share of Agricultural Lending (Direct and Indirect) ?
(A) 13•6 per cent
(B) 14•6 per cent
(C) 15•6 per cent
(D) 16•6 per cent
(E) 17•6 per cent

3. What is the average yield per lactation in buffalo in India ?
(A) 1200 kg
(B) 1250 kg
(C) 1300 kg
(D) 1350 kg
(E) 1400 kg

4. Which one of the following Districts of Andhra Pradesh is considered as the ‘Hub of Fresh Fish Farming’ ?
(A) Nellore
(B) Guntur
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
(E) Anantpur

5. At present, per capita availability of milk in India is about—
(A) 200 gram per day
(B) 210 gram per day
(C) 215 gram per day
(D) 220 gram per day
(E) 225 gram per day

6. Under the cold storage, this crop requires 0-1 degree Celsius temperature and 98–100 per cent humidity ……… .
(A) Brinjal
(B) Bhindi
(C) Peas
(D) Grape
(E) Banana

7. This Hybrid variety of Sorghum (Jowar) is high yielding, tolerant to shoot fly, stemborer, with good roti making qualities suitable for Maharashtra state under Kharif and Rabi Seasons—
(A) AKSV 13 R
(B) SPV 1155 (Variety)
(C) SHD 9690 (Hybrid)
(D) DSV 5 (Variety)
(E) DSV 4 (Variety)

8. Which one of the following Agrofood sector in India has ‘Highest Level of Processing’ (percentage of total production) ?
(A) Fruits and Vegetables
(B) Milk and Milk Products
(C) Buffalo Meat
(D) Poultry Product
(E) Marine Products

9. This Micro Finance Institution (MFI) in India, is one of the fastest growing MFI in the world with annual growth rate of 200 per cent—
(A) PRADHAN
(B) BASIX
(C) SKS
(D) MYRADA
(E) Sadaguru Seva Trust

10. This Sunflower Hybrid Variety is tall (150 cm–180 cm), early in maturity (95 days), yields 1•7 tonnes to 2•0 tonnes per hectare, is recommended for cultivation at all India level—
(A) KBSH 44 (Hybrid)
(B) KBSH 41 (Hybrid)
(C) KBSH 42 (Hybrid)
(D) LSFH 35 (Maruti-Hybrid)
(E) PSFH 118 (Hybrid)

11. As on March 2007, of the total Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) issued to farmers by Formal Financial Institutions in India, the share of commercial banks is about—
(A) 37 per cent
(B) 45 per cent
(C) 47 per cent
(D) 49 per cent
(E) 51 per cent

12. During the last four decades, there had ‘Not been any meaningful gain in production’ of this group of crops in India ……… .
(A) Oilseed crops
(B) Plantation crops
(C) Aromatic and Medicinal plants
(D) Horticultural crops
(E) Pulse crops

13. Which one of the following countries, ranked first in the Inland Fisheries production in 2004-05 ?
(A) Japan
(B) United States
(C) China
(D) India
(E) Thailand

14. What percentages of total cultivable area in India, is presently under ‘Fodder’ production ?
(A) 3•60 per cent
(B) 4•60 per cent
(C) 5•60 per cent
(D) 6•60 per cent
(E) 7•60 per cent

15. This country ranked first in production of ‘Mushrooms’ in the world—
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Indonesia
(E) Brazil

16. In which one of the following states, more than 2,000 ‘Vermicomposting units’ started by individuals and/or organization in rural and urban centres ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Karnataka

17. Nearly 35 per cent of the total ‘Fish Processing Facilities’ in India is concentrated in this state—
(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka

18. This is a premier Institute/Board/Authority set up by Government of India for providing technical and financial support for creation of postharvest infrastructure for Horticultural crops in India—
(A) APEDA
(B) NCDC
(C) NHB
(D) MPEDA
(E) None of these

19. Which one of the following crops you will suggest to a Big Farmer for getting higher yields and good income under the ‘Protected cultivation’ or under ‘Green-House condition’ ?
(A) Coloured Capsicum
(B) Vegetable Nursery
(C) Brinjal
(D) Sweet Corn
(E) Lettuce

20. Which one of the following Private Corporate Companies in India is a leader in organized sector producing ‘Potato chips’ in India ?
(A) ITC
(B) HLL
(C) Clean Food
(D) Pepsi Co.
(E) GD Foods

21. In which one of the following Indian states, percentage of total cultivable area under Horticultural crops is only 2•75 per cent ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) Uttar Pradesh

22. What percentage of ‘All Economically Productive women population’ in India are engaged in Agriculture including animal husbandry and fisheries ?
(A) 38 per cent
(B) 48 per cent
(C) 58 per cent
(D) 68 per cent
(E) 78 per cent

23. In which year, the ‘Varsha Bima Yojana’ (Insurance against the adverse incidence of rainfall) was started in India ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
(E) 2008

24. Which one of the following states, the extent of financial exclusion is between 50 to 75 per cent ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jharkhand
(E) West Bengal

25. A field of work in which people aim to improve the access of rural communities to efficient, sustainable financial services is known as or categorized as—
(A) Agricultural Finance
(B) Rural Finance
(C) Micro Finance
(D) Financial Institution
(E) Financial Intermediary

26. The Science of cultivation and harvesting of fruits is called ‘Pomology’, however, of the following fruits, this fruit crop presently is not covered under the ‘Pomology’—
(A) Water-melon
(B) Banana
(C) Strawberry
(D) Sapota
(E) Custard Apple

27. The ‘Productivity of Banana’ (yield per hectare) is highest in this state—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Gujarat

28. Pepsi Co. started Contract farming in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh for preparation of—
(A) Tomato purees
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Groundnut Butter
(D) Sunflower Oil
(E) Chilli Paste for Export

29. At present, how many National Research Institutes are working on Development of Products/crops under ‘Agricultural Biotechnologies’ in India ?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
(E) 40

30. ‘Shifting Cultivation’ is practiced in India covering about 14•66 lakh hectare area, where in this state ranked first with 3•75 lakh hectare—
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Manipur
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Tripura

31. Which one of the following flower crops is native of India ?
(A) Gladious
(B) Bougainvillea
(C) Tuberose
(D) Orchids
(E) All these

32. What is the Total Plan allocation (Rs. crores) for development of Rainfed/Dryland Agriculture in the XIth Five Year Plan Period (2007-08 to 2011-2012) ?
(A) Rs. 65,000 crore
(B) Rs. 70,000 crore
(C) Rs. 75,000 crore
(D) Rs. 80,000 crore
(E) Rs. 85,000 crore

33. As on March 31, 2007, how many of the Public Sector Banks had achieved Direct Agricultural Lending Target (13•5 per cent of Net Bank Credit) stipulated by the RBI ?
(A) Eight
(B) Nine
(C) Ten
(D) Eleven
(E) Twelve

34. This ‘Mango Hybrid Variety’ is early maturity, dwarf and having attractive colour, suitable for ‘Chotanagpur Region’ for the India—
(A) Amrapali
(B) Safed Maldah
(C) Malika
(D) Gulab Khas
(E) Ratna

35. Production period in case of tea after gestation period is to the extant of …… .
(A) 100 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 10 years
(E) 5 years

36. Recently, this Public Sector Bank, had launched an innovation called ‘Village Knowledge Centre’ wherein technology is used to help the farmers improve his productivity—
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) United Bank of India
(D) United Commercial Bank
(E) Union Bank of India

37. As on 31 March, 2008, which one of the following Microfinance Programmes have covered the largest number of BPL/poor families in India ?
(A) SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
(B) SIDBI Foundation for Micro Credit (SFMC)
(C) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)
(D) Friends of Women’s World Banking (FWWB)
(E) Rashtriya Grameen Vikas Nidhi (RGVN)

38. Which one of the following is the name of a fungicide which can move mainly upwards within the plant and kill the pathogen away from the point of application ?
(A) Semesan
(B) Demosan
(C) Cuprosan
(D) Tulisan
(E) Ceresan

39. As on March 2008, how many ‘No Frill Accounts’ were opened by Banks under Financial Inclusion ?
(A) 12 million
(B) 13 million
(C) 14 million
(D) 15 million
(E) 16 million

40. This state is the Leading Producer of Vegetables in India contributing around 19 per cent of country’s production from 17 per cent of the total area under vegetable—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka

41. According to the RBI Report (2001-02), this Banking Region of the country has ‘Highest Flow of Institutional Credit for Agriculture’ in terms of amount of credit extended in Rs. per hectare of Gross Cropped Area—
(A) Northern Region
(B) North-Eastern Region
(C) Eastern Region
(D) Western Region
(E) Southern Region

42. Based on the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India (RBI, 2007), the number of rural branches of scheduled Commercial Banks in India as on 30th June, 2007, were—
(A) 32,303
(B) 32,121
(C) 30,775
(D) 30,500
(E) 30,633

43. At present (2006), the estimated population of Tractors (Number of Tractors) in India is about—
(A) 28 lakhs
(B) 29 lakhs
(C) 30 lakhs
(D) 31 lakhs
(E) 32 lakhs

44. This being the only country in the world producing all four known commercial varieties of silk viz., Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga—
(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) India
(E) Korean Republic

45. Which one of the following Pearl Millet (Bajra) variety is early maturity, with high yield and suitable for Haryana State under irrigated and rainfed situation ?
(A) GHB-757
(B) HHB-146
(C) GHB-538
(D) HHB-94
(E) RHB-121

46. Of the 31 Districts identified in four states as having higher incidence of farmers suicides due to economic distress. How many of the 31 economically distress districts belonged to Andhra Pradesh ?
(A) 10 Districts
(B) 12 Districts
(C) 14 Districts
(D) 16 Districts
(E) 18 Districts

47. Approximately, what percentage of Total Grape produced in India every year dried for Raising Purpose ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 12 per cent
(C) 14 per cent
(D) 16 per cent
(E) 18 per cent

48. The Head Quarter of ‘National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) which was established on 10th July, 2006 for realizing full potential of Indian Fisheries sector is located at—
(A) Rajendranagar (Hyderabad) A.P.
(B) Cochi (Kerala)
(C) Mangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(E) Bhubaneshwar (Orissa)

49. This Central Cattle Breeding Farm is producing ‘HFx Tharparkar Crossbred Bulls’ for breeding purpose in India—
(A) Andeshnagar (U.P.)
(B) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(C) Hassergatha (Karnataka)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Alamdhi (Tamil Nadu)

50. Which one of the following countries, ‘Annual Per Capita Consumption’ of Wine is highest (50 litres) ?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) France
(E) Germany

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (E) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (E) 40. (B)
41. (E) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (C)

Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 14-12-2008)
Reasoning : Solved Paper


1. In a certain code SOUTHERN is written as UVPTMQDG. How is MARIGOLD written in that code?
(A) JSBCNFKS
(B) JSBNHPME
(C) JSBNCKNF
(D) NBSKCJNF
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Volcano
(C) Storm
(D) Hurricane
(E) Cyclone
Ans : (B)

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EVAPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)

4. How many meaningful four letter English words can be formed with the letters ITED using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 5–6) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 kms. towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 kms. It now runs 6 kms. after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 kms. and stops at point Q.

5. How far is point Q with respect to point P ?
(A) 16 km
(B) 25 km
(C) 4 km
(D) 0 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
(E) North-West
Ans : (D)

7. If each of the consonants of the word PURCHASED is substituted by the letter preceding it and each vowel is substituted by the letter following it, which of the following letters would have the same letter on either sides ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) F
(D) Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. If all the letters in the word NEIGHBOURS are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

9. Asha ranks 16th from the top and 15th from the bottom in an examination. How many students are there in the class ?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 32
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. Five students participated in an examination and each scored different marks. Nidhi scored higher than Mamta. Kavita scored lower than Prashant but higher than Nidhi. Anil’s score was between Mamta and Nidhi. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the lowest scorers respectively ?
(A) Nidhi, Kavita
(B) Kavita, Mamta
(C) Anil, Kavita
(D) Prashant, Mamta
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digit/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given
below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
E R J L N A Q D P U B F I K T H
Digit/Symbol :
* 2 © 9 6 # 5 1 % $ £ 4 @ 7 3 8
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is followed by a vowel and the last letter is preceded by a consonant, the last letter is to be coded as the code for vowel following the first letter.
(ii) If there are no vowels in the group of letters the codes for the fifth letter from the right and the fifth letter from the left are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the group of letters contains more than one vowel, the codes for both the vowels are to be interchanged.

11. PNEBJI
(A) %6@£©*
(B) %6*@£©
(C) %6*£©@
(D) @%£©6*
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. FABLNK
(A) #4£96#
(B) £4#96#
(C) 4#£96#
(D) 49#6#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. LPKNJB
(A) 9%£67©
(B) 9©76%£
(C) 9%76©£
(D) 96©7%£
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. DTQKNH
(A) 135768
(B) 137568
(C) 138765
(D) 165783
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

15. TNAPUB
(A) 36%$#£
(B) 36#%$£
(C) 63#%$£
(D) 36$%#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16-20) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements :
Some jeeps are trains.
All trains are buses.
Some boats are jeeps.
Some scooters are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some scooters are trains.
II. Some bots are buses.
III. Some jeeps are scooters.
IV. All buses are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Statements :
All teachers are engineers.
All engineers are cooks.
Some cooks are merchants.
All merchants are poets.
Conclusions :
I. Some cooks are teachers.
II. Some merchants are engineers.
III. All cooks are engineers.
IV. Some cooks are poets.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
Some hammers are nails.
All nails are screws.
All screws are nuts.
Conclusions :
I. All nuts are screws.
II. Some nuts are tools.
III. Some hammers are screws.
IV. All nuts are nails.
(A) All follow
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. Statements :
All pens are bags.
All bags are glasses.
No glass is a spoon.
All spoons are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are pens.
II. Some books are bags.
III. No spoon is a pen.
IV. No bag is a book.
(A) Only II and III follow
(B) Only I, III and either II or IV follow
(C) Either II or IV follows
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. Statements :
All petals are flowers.
All thorns are flowers.
Some leaves are thorns.
Some stems are flowers.
Conclusions :
I. Some petals are leaves.
II. All leaves are flowers.
III. Some stems are petals.
IV. No petal is a leaf.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and either I or IV follow
(D) Only either I or IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow—
129 642 921 476 308

21. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to third digit of the highest number after adding 4 to each number ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (C)

23. Based upon the given set of numbers, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 647
(B) 264
(C) 912
(D) 192
(E) 380
Ans : (E)

24. If in each number, the digits are arranged in ascending order, what will be sum of middle digits of each of the numbers ?
(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 26
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which will be the second lowest number ?
(A) 129
(B) 642
(C) 921
(D) 476
(E) 308
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26-30) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arranement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
@ B D S 3 W A * V 6 9 Q J % H 8 U N I 2 T 4 # 7 5 $ K

26. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based upon their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) BD3
(B) %HU
(C) *V9
(D) T45
(E) S3A
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the 17th from the right and 19th from the left end ?
(A) %
(B) H
(C) J
(D) #
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
* 6 Q 9 J H % 8 N U I T ?
(A) N
(B) 4
(C) #
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. How many consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31-35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. F sits to the immediate right of D and third to the left of A. G sits third to the left of D who does not sit next to E. B sits next to G but not next to D. C does not sit next to either D or A.

31. Who sits to the immediate left of a ?
(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. What is the position of H with respect to C ?
(A) Second to the left
(B) First to the right
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the right
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following pairs sits between G and D ?
(A) AC
(B) CF
(C) HB
(D) FA
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of which of the following (excluding A) would not change ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Four of the following are alike based upon their seating arrangement around the circle, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) FH
(B) GE
(C) CD
(D) BG
(E) EF
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 36-40) Read the following information carefully and answers the questions which follow—
‘A × B’ means ‘A is brother of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

36. How is T related to P in the expression ‘P + Q – R ÷ T’ ?
(A) Maternal grandmother
(B) Maternal grandfather
(C) Paternal grandmother
(D) Grandson
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following means ‘P is sister of S’ ?
(A) P + Q ÷ R – S
(B) P + Q ÷ R ×S
(C) P × Q – R + S
(D) P ÷ Q + R × S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. How is P related to S in the expression ‘S ×R + Q ÷ P’ ?
(A) Father
(B) Grandson
(C) Son
(D) Grandfather
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. How is R related to P in the expression ‘P + Q ×R – T’ ?
(A) Niece
(B) Paternal Uncle
(C) Paternal Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. How is S related to P in the expression ‘P – Q ÷ R ×S’ ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41-45) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answers—
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either argument I or II is strong.
(D) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(E) If both arguments I and II are strong.

41. Statement : Should the number of holidays given to Govt. employees be reduced to only five in a year ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of nation.
II. No, employees require intermittent rest from hectic work schedule.
Ans : (B)

42. Statement : Should all correspondence courses at graduate level be stopped ?
Arguments :
I. No, correspondence courses help needy students to persue studies and earn at the same time.
II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers and classrooms.
Ans : (E)

43. Statement : Should only nuclear power be used to generate electricity ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a great extent.
II. No, Radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe for large scale use.
Ans : (B)

44. Statement : Should the Govt. remove all the slums in major cities ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, slums are a nuisance to the people living in big cities.
II. No inhabitants of slums are also citizens of the country and they contribute towards the growth of the nation.
Ans : (D)

45. Statement : Should cricket replace hockey as the national sport of India.
Arguments :
I. Yes, the performance of hockey team has been dismal since last few years.
II. No, cricket is the national sport of Australia and no two countries must have the same national sport.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46-50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers—

(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

46. On which month of the year was Divya born ?
I. Her mother correctly remembers that Divya was born after June and before September.
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after March and before August.
Ans : (E)

47. What is the code for ‘those’ if in a certain language ‘those lovely red roses’ is written as ‘pe so la ti’ ?
I. ‘ni jo ke pe’ means ‘stopped at red light’.
II. ‘ba di ti ga’ means ‘roses are very pretty and ‘fo hi la’ means ‘lovely day outside’.
Ans : (E)

48. What is Sumit’s rank from the top in a class of 50 students ?
I. Ajay is 6 ranks below Sumit and is twenty-ninth from the bottom.
II. Ashu is 4 ranks above Sumit and is thirty-fifth from the bottom.
Ans : (C)

49. How many sisters does Mala have ?
I. The only brother of Mala’s father has only one niece.
II. The son of the husband of Mala’s mother has two siblings.
Ans : (D)

50. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing North ?
I. A does not sit next to D who does not sit next on the extreme right.
II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while only one person sits between C and B.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes – A, B and C. There are three girls among the seven students who study in each of the three institutes. Two of the seven students study BCA, two study medicine and one each studies Aviation Technology, Journalism and MBA. R studies in the same college as P who studies MBA in college B. No girl studies journalism or MBA. T studies BCA in college A and his brother W studies Aviation Technology in college C. S studies journalism in the same college as Q. Neither R nor Z study BCA. The girl who studies BCA does not study in college C.

51. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine ?
(A) QZ
(B) WZ
(C) PZ
(D) SZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

52. In which college does Q study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

53. In which of the colleges do three of them study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is the field of study of Z ?
(A) Aviation Technology
(B) BCA
(C) MBA
(D) Medicines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

55. Which of the following three represents girls ?
(A) SQR
(B) QRZ
(C) SQZ
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following qualifications/criteria.
(i) A graduate in science with atleast 60% marks.
(ii) An age of atleast 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.7.2008.
(iii) Have a post-qualification work experience of atleast 2 years.
(iv) Should have secured 55% marks in the selection process.

However, if the candidates fulfills above mentioned criteria except—
(a) At (i) if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post graduation degree with minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HRManager of the organization.
(b) At (iii) if the candidate fulfils all the eligibility criteria but of postqualification work experience but has secured 75% marks in the selection process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization.

Based on the above information study carefully whether following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 1.7.2008.
Mark answers—

(A) If the candidate is to be selected.
(B) If the candidates is not to be selected.
(C) If the candidate may be referred to the HR-Manager.
(D) If the candidate may be referred to the Director.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take the decision.

56. Shruti Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a top organization. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1981, she had completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics in 2004 and secured 66% marks in it.
Ans : (A)

57. Pradeep Kumar has 6 years of post qualification work experience. His date of birth is 12.4.1972. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in Science and scored 76% in it.
Ans : (A)

58. Zaheer Ahmed has completed graduation and post graduate in Economics from Bhopal in 1999 and has secureds 51% and 68% marks respectively. His date of birth is 26.11.1976. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm since 2003 till date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)

59. Harpreet Kaur has done graduation in Physics and is a post graduate in Science and has secured 57% and 65% marks respectively. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process, and has a post qualification work experience of 3 years.
Ans : (E)

60. Deepak Agarwal has completed graduation and post graduation in Geography with 68% and has secured 57% marks in the selection process. His date of birth is 11.11.1979.
Ans : (E)

61. Varun Arora has secured 79% marks in the selection process. He has completed his degree in B.Sc securing 67% marks in it. His date of birth is 9.3.1975, and has a post qualification work experience of one year.
Ans : (D)

62. Varsha Nath’s date of birth is 6.2.1979. She has done her graduation and post-graduation in Commerce and secured 59% and 62% marks respectively. She has a post qualification work experience as a senior executive of 3 years and has secured 59% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)

63. Asha Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a reputed firm. She has done graduation in Botany scoring 71% marks in it. Born on 22.1.1973, she has secured 53% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)

64. Nitesh Burman has done Grduation in Chemistry and has secured 69% in it. His date of birth is 9.12.1981. He has ranked first in the selection process and has secured 82% marks in it. He has four months of post qualification work experience.
Ans : (D)

65. Tanya Shetty has been working in a leading organization since the completion of post graduation in 1990. She was born on 1.5.1968. She is a graduate and a post graduate in Science and has secured more than 60% at both graduate as well as post graduate level. She has secured 71% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)

66. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ODME using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

67. How many such digits are there in the number 84315269 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one tthat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 35
(C) 15
(D) 21
(E) 27
Ans : (A)

69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Earth
(D) Uranus
(E) Moon
Ans : (E)

70. If only each of the consonants in the word GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ?
(A) O
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

71. What should come next in the following letter series ?
A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I
(A) J
(B) K
(C) A
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

72. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFORM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)